Does ancap economics reject the use of empirical evidence? If so, why? And how can we know if any economic assertion is true if it can't be tested?
One of my problems with a lot of ancaps I talk with when it comes to economic discussions is that they seem to discuss economics purely on a theoretical/hypothetical level and are dismissive of any empirical evidence that may contradict their views, such as the evidence that we have for the efficacy of many government interventions such as various effective tax and redistribution schemes that many wealthy governments run that we know from the evidence is effective at alleviating societal ills such as poverty.
From my understanding, ancaps draw from Austrian Economics for their economic views which relies on praxeology, which to my understanding attempts to derive economic prescriptions from logic. The problem with this is that logic alone can never lead to us any kind of proofs for human action on its own, because all logic does is give us a system of rules to formalise arguments. As long as an argument does not violate the three known laws of logic, you can make pretty much any claim and it would be logically valid.
For example, consider these two propositions: "Government welfare reduces poverty" vs "Government welfare does not reduce poverty". Neither of these propositions are logically contradictory on their own, nor do they violate the law of identity, nor do they violate the law of the excluded middle. Hence neither claim violates the laws of logic, so you necessarily need to use something OTHER than pure logic to demonstrate that either claim is true or false.
I'm interested to know what I'm missing here, as I'm a utilitarian so I don't find ancap ethics to be very persuasive at all but I could be convinced to becoming an ancap if there is a good argument for why an ancap economic framework would be superior.