Is the conditionnel also replaced with imparfait at times?
Hello! In some Romance languages, in stating counterfactual situations, sometimes speakers use the imperfective past form in the apodosis (the part stating the possible consequence) instead of the conditional. Does this also happen in French? In what situation? How is this seen? To be clear here is an example.
Si j'avais d'argent, je l'achetais maintenant (instead of acheterais).