u/ElevatorSevere7651

I already know some basic; I know that the (possibly) earliest written mention of him is in Y Gododdin from the 600s, which should be about 100 years after Arthur supposidly existed due to Nennius claiming that he fought in the Battle of Badon, a battle we know happened in the early 500s thanks to Gildas’ contempory writing.

This doesn’t make me sure of anything however. From what I know, the oldest surviving copy of Y Gododdin from the 1300s is actually two copies by two different scribes, where the mention of Arthur only appears in one and not the other. This being long after the writing of Historia Regum Britanniae creates the possibility that Arthur could be a Post-Galfridian addition, making his mention more uncertain

So if Y Gododdin isn’t a garantee, that means that that Nennius’ Historia Brittonum from the 800s is our oldest certain record of Arthur, giving us nearly 300 years of muddling to occur between his life and then (and the fact that Gildas never even mentions Arthur is relation to Badon is also a red flag)

This is all I know of it when it comes to litterature. I know very little of what proof there may be in Welsh tradition (outside of Y Gododdin and him probably being popular by Nennius at least), and all of it has mostly made me unsure. So I’d like to know the thought of the good people of this community!

English’ been skipping the gym, and I’m not about to speak a language that weak. That’s why I propose we should do a training-montage where all the weak verbs become strong verbs

Some examples I have are use/yose (like ”choose/chose”), bang/bung (like ”hang/hung”) and feast faste (like ”eat/ate”)

As I’ve understood the soundchanges between Latin and Spanish, initial [f] becomes [h] before being dropped entirely, just look at facio > hacer, filius > hijo

So why then does the decendant of Latin ”fui” (and its conjugation” get to keep that initial [f], instead of following the expected soundchange?