u/Extension-Rush-9175

The LSJ defines a particular occurrence of the compound adjective Theokletos (θεόκλητος) as "sung by gods", citing a usage by the Epic poet Nonnus of Panopolis:

>sung by gods, Nonn. D. 5.92.

On the one hand, the root κλέω is defined by the LSJ as "tell of, make famous, celebrate" in Sense I and "sing" in Sense II - which is the sense that the LSJ appears to derive κλητος from in this example.

On the other hand, the root καλεω is defined by the LSJ as "call, summon".

Would be interested in hearing your thoughts, does the LSJ mistakenly conflate κλέω with καλεω in this gloss?

I'm pasting below the relevant excerpt from the poetry of Nonnus (link: https://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus%3Atext%3A2008.01.0485%3Abook%3D5 )

>Ἀονίων δὲ θύγατρες ἀνεκρούσαντο χορείαις

>Ἁρμονίης ὑμέναιον: ἐπ᾽ εὐθαλάμῳ δὲ μελάθρῳ

>90Θρηικίης φθέγξαντο χορίτιδες οὔνομα νύμφης.

>καὶ Παφίη νεότευκτον ἐκόσμεε παστάδα Κάδμῳ

>παιδὸς ἑῆς μέλπουσα θεοκλητους ὑμεναίους

>μήτηρ ἱμερόεσσα: πατὴρ δ᾽ ὑπὸ χάρματι κούρης

>γυμνὸς ἄτερ σακέων ὠρχήσατο μείλιχος Ἄρης

>δεξιτερὴν ἀσίδηρον ἐπικλίνων Ἀφροδίτῃ,

In Carmel McCarthy's translation of Ephrem's commentary on the Diatessaron, we find a curious translation of the Paraclete sayings in John 14-16:

>"Behold, I am sending you the one who speaks good things"
[Ephrem the Syrian Commentary on the Diatessaron, accessible via: https://www.scribd.com/document/941542939/Ephrem-the-Syrian-Commentary-on-the-Diatessaron ]

A similar rendering is also found in French translations:

>"Voici que je vous envoie celui qui profere de bonnes"
Translation: Here I send you the one who speaks good words
[Gnostica, Judaica, Catholica: Collected Essays of Gilles Quispel - P.264]

I am quite curious as to the Syriac word/phrase which was rendered as "one who speaks good things".

The full Syriac manuscript is freely digitised via this link, and I would appreciate if any Syriac experts would be able to help identify this Syriac phrase.

https://viewer.cbl.ie/viewer/image/Syc_709_1/1/LOG_0000/

In Carmel McCarthy's translation of Ephrem's commentary on the Diatessaron, we find a curious translation of the Paraclete sayings in John 14-16:

>"Behold, I am sending you the one who speaks good things"
[Ephrem the Syrian Commentary on the Diatessaron, accessible via: https://www.scribd.com/document/941542939/Ephrem-the-Syrian-Commentary-on-the-Diatessaron ]

A similar rendering is also found in French translations:

>"Voici que je vous envoie celui qui profere de bonnes"
Translation: Here I send you the one who speaks good words
[Gnostica, Judaica, Catholica: Collected Essays of Gilles Quispel - P.264]

I am quite curious as to the Syriac word/phrase which was rendered as "one who speaks good things".

The full Syriac manuscript is freely digitised via this link, and I would appreciate if any Syriac experts would be able to help identify this Syriac phrase.

https://viewer.cbl.ie/viewer/image/Syc_709_1/1/LOG_0000/

I was reading through Prof Nicolai Sinai's explanation of verses like Q11:49 which refer to biblical narratives as tidings of the unseen that "you and your people" had not known about. Prof Sinai brilliantly explains these verses as referring to the Meccans' ignorance not of biblical literature, but rather of the authoritative revealed knowledge about these events:

>However, this may simply mean that Muḥammad and his audience did not previously have access to authoritative revealed knowledge about figures like Noah (thus Sinai, Key Terms, 389–90)
- The Christian Elephant in the Meccan Room P.62

>That is, the verse is telling the Messenger that he did not truly know about these events and protagonists, as opposed to being reliant on human tradition.
-Key Terms, 389–90

Prof Sinai's explanation seems to imply, at least on the surface, that the Qur'an views the biblical traditions available to the Meccans as mere human traditions that did not have the veracity of authoritative, divine revelation.

My question is - would such an interpretation of Q11:49 necessitate that the Qur'an views the biblical traditions as containing some level of corruption, or is there a way to reconcile Q11:49 with the view that the Qur'an views the biblical traditions as uncorrupted?