God Wants all Saved - why did God not give all what Mary was Given?
Christianity teaches that God desires all to be saved. Catholicism teaches that Mary, through a special grace, was permitted by God to be without original sin and to be capable of never sinning. It also teaches that despite that, Mary still had free will, active virtue, and the ability to love God.
If God wishes all to be saved, why did God selectively apply such a grace to only one woman instead of all people or, at the very least, anyone upon Catholic Baptism?
It would not guarantee salvation for all.
It would make salvation far more attainable for many.
EDIT:
One commenter tried to assert that it is already possible for people to avoid sin for their entire lives by God's grace. They tried to justify this by saying Trent says that it is possible for man to follow all of God's commands.
The Council of Trent also literally says that the very idea/proclamation that anyone can abstain from sin for their entire life without the *same* grace given to Mary is, itself, also anathema. As shown in the second half of this paragraph
"CANON XXIII.-lf any one saith, that a man once justified can sin no more, nor lose grace, and that therefore he that falls and sins was never truly justified; or, on the other hand, that he is able, during his whole life, to avoid all sins, even those that are venial,-except by a special privilege from God, as the Church holds in regard of the Blessed Virgin; let him be anathema." (source: https://www.papalencyclicals.net/councils/trent/sixth-session.htm)
So the very source you cite says - paradoxically - that God's commandments are possible for the justified to observe. And also impossible to observe forever in practice.
The way Catholicism likes to get around this is to say that each individual sin is possible to avoid, even though overall you *cannot* avoid sin eventually. Which is a paradox.
Which brings us back to this question - why does this loving God not give such graces to the children?