u/Immediate_Error2135

The Nazgûl's minds. 'They do not perceive the world of light as we do', says Aragorn.

Gandalf says a wraith 'walks in the twilight'.

Light here is clearly sunlight. We walk under the sun and become 'weary' under the sun, to use the word Faramir uses when talking to Frodo, and die under the sun.

So what's the idea? That the Nazgûl can't see the object under the Sun, just its shadow?

The twilight, that sort of light, happens after the Sun has gone under the horizon. Objects' shadows are at their longest then. The Nazgûl, or rather their perception, are stuck eternally in that state.

Maybe this is what happens when 'thin, sort of stretched, like butter scrapped over too much bread' finally consumes your whole being. Every object goes under the horizon and stretches into a shadow.

This also would explain why the Nazgul were easily lost under the Sunlight; for them it was disorienting, pun intended. The compasses of their perception became unable to tell them where the North was.

The Witch-King was the exception, we're told. Apparently he could perceive the world of light in some way even from the twilight under which he walked.

Which brings Glorfindel to mind. He inhabiting the seen and unseen. Did the Witch-King, or rather the man who became the Witch-King, have a trace, a touch, of elvish blood? In that case he would have been not only a numenorean, but a noble or prince related ultimately to Elros himself.

What a curious pair, that of ex-god and wise half-beast. In Milan.

Caliban will thereafter be wise and 'seek for grace'. Prospero's.

Prospero's every third thought will be his grave and this after acknowledging 'this thing of darkness' as his.

But Prospero will have abjured his rough magic. He'll no longer be god-like, so what grace will he be able to give? 'Grace' is not a christian word here, but it is not innocent: a religious word, one that has that kind of resonance. Shakespeare's audiences would have identified that echo immediately.

What are we supposed to think of this? Shakespeare seems to have had at least some idea of what would follow. What do you think it was? Caliban would no longer have a kingdom (the island), but all things considered it would seem greater in stature than he was, with Prospero beibg comparatively diminished. One less of a god, the other more human than half a beast.

https://lingwe.blogspot.com/2012/12/smeagol-whats-in-name.html?m=1

So I was reading this, and if 'smeagan' has to do with the idea of 'seek out' and deagol is 'hidden', maybe 'smeagan' was made to look like 'deagol by Tolkien, the result being Smeagol.

Had the names to 'rhyme' phonetically...for them to rhyme in some other way, related to meaning?

Is this a joke, Tolkien having fun? Are Smeagol and Deagol "Seek and Hide"?

Did Smeagol, who was obsessed with the murder of Deagol, reversed the order of those words and become himself Hide&Seek?

Because that's what he did after killing Deagol, the arc of his story, and in that chronological order, and that's how he died, right after having found the object and that's how Middle Earth was saved (although not by his choice)

What do you think?

If Mahanaxar -Ring Of Doom- came from valarin, then the 'naxar' element, 'ring', could be related to 'nazg' in Black Speech. Do you think that to be the case? If so, then within the story Sauron would have derived 'nazg' from 'naxar'.

And what about Tolkien? Did he derive 'naxar' from 'nazg' in that scenario? Was it the other way round?

A bit of speculation: If those words were related etimologically, that very relation would maybe be in itself related to mythical considerations.

The Powers of Aman 'forging' a Ring of Doom made of themselves. A temporary, metaphorical ring

Vs

Sauron forging an actual Ring of Power with the best part of the strength that was native to him. The Ring was also temporary, because it was destroyed in Mount...Doom.

Same key words in both cases. Power, Ring, Doom. Only arranged differently across the real/metaphorical and good/evil axis. Unnaturally arranged in Sauron's case. That was him trying to be The Power of Middle-Earth, the equivalent of the Valar. And that led to his Doom.

And by this I mean: how would you pair Shakespeare's and Marlowe's plays in the sense of the former's plays being some sort or reelaboration of the latter's, no matter how partially and/or remotely? For example: Merchant of Venice vs Jew of Malta.

They are called Sistros, Braata, Faya and Yanjon.

Is this the inspiration?

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Four\_Sages#

Let's look at the names purely as words. Here we have a Chinese "Faya":

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zhu\_Faya

The 'Fa-' root means 'law, dharma'. We knew the 4 dwartii sages to have been lawmakers.

One of the 4 chinese sages is called Yan Hui. Maybe the basis for 'Yanjon' (although that name sounds Korean)

In any case 'Faya' and 'Yanjon' are distinctively eastern as words.

The same can't be said about Sistros y Braata:

https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/sister

https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/brother

These are Indo-European words. They sound like germanic/greek and sanskrit respectively.

So we have sister/brother (2 western words) and chinese sages (2 far eastern words).

And we have the pair east+west too, which of course can be understood as twins or siblings conceptually.

The very word 'Dwartii' -which looks like a latin-esque plural- seems to contain the Indo-European root 'dwoh-', which we have in two, dual, duo and...twin.

https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Reconstruction:Proto-Indo-European/dw%C3%B3h%E2%82%81

Do you think these particular word choices to have been random? If not, what would the idea be?

For example, the three fates in Greek mythology are named Clotho, Lachesis, and Atropos. The Great Mothers in Ahsoka are named Klothow, Lakesis and Aktropaw. They are not fates but of course their powers are related to fate, to foresight.

Palpatine had statues of those 'lawmakers' in his office, and was particularly fond of Sistros, within which he hid his lightsaber. The only female sage of the four. Which means maybe sex or pregnancy in some twisted, revengeful way! 'A jedi weapon', he calls lightsabers in ROTJ (The sith came from the jedi; just as a child comes from the previous generation)

Snoke's ring had those Dwartii glyphs on it. And maybe the object played a role in mindbridging Kylo and Rey (it had a rock from Vader's castle on it - a 'bloodline' object)

The dyad is called 'prophesized' in the TROS VD. And 'dyad' also imply 'dual, twin', etc. Is prophesizing 'lawmaking' of a sort? We know those 2 sith wayfinders to have been ancient artefacts.

Did the Chosen One prophecy came from those sages? Always in motion is the future, and prophecies are not a jedi-like thing. And the 'destroy the sith' part sounds sith-like in itself. In the ROTS novel we have the idea of the chosen one not necessarily being a jedi (an idea voiced by Obi-Wan)

Leia became a ghost. What happened to Ben?

Where they somehow 'linked' by an invisible thread since the moment Leia expired (that's when Rey notices Leia's death) until their vanishing?

Did Leia did for his son what Ben had just done for Rey? Did he give her last spark of life to Ben? Was he sent back (reborn? reincarnated?) as a result?

Anakin using the Daughter of Mortis to resurrect Ahsoka comes to mind (Mortis means 'of the dead').

'Some day I will learn to stop people from dying', as he had said in AOTC. In that film we have a mother's death, just as we do in TROS.

Here they are:

"“By the birth of Lúthien [Melian] became enmeshed in ‘incarnation’, unable to lay it aside while husband and child remained in Arda alive, and her powers of mind (especially foresight) became clouded by the body through which it must now always work.”

"Pengolodh also cites the opinion that if a ‘spirit’ (that is, one of those not embodied by creation) uses a hröa for the furtherance of its personal purposes, or (still more) for the enjoyment of bodily faculties, it finds it increasingly difficult to operate without the hröa. The things that are most binding are those that in the Incarnate have to do with the life of the hröa itself, its sustenance and its propagation. Thus eating and drinking are binding, but not the delight in beauty of sound or form. Most binding is begetting or conceiving.”

"Thus it will be seen that an Elf, remembering the past, must, if he will communicate it, clothe it in language. But to them “language” is essentially an art of the cohering fëa and hrondo"

So...do you think these ideas are appliable to Sauron and his Ring? He begot and conceived the Ring. It was his 'child'. And he enmeshed a great part of his power in that bit of Arda, in that gold; the power became thus incarnated *in the gold*.

As for the third quote, maybe that has to do with the Ring-verse. It was a spell, and maybe the last step of the whole process. And the point of no return, retrospectively. After that, Sauron's fate became bound to the ring's. If the latter's 'incarnation' was destroyed, so would be Sauron's - his physical body.

Why is her head sometimes her head on one side, some another? What does that even mean?

Why bow to Antigonus three times?

This is the passage:

[...]To me comes a creature,/Sometimes her head on one side, some another;/I never saw a vessel of like sorrow,/So fill'd and so becoming: in pure white robes,/Like very sanctity, she did approach/My cabin where I lay; thrice bow'd before me[...]

The Winter's Tale. That's Antigonus speaking about his vision/dream or whatever you want to call it.

Hermione.

What does it mean "sometimes her head on one side, some another"?

...so, was it a sith prophecy? Something like "one day the Throne Of Exegol will rise again and the dyad will rise against it. (All) The Sith will be destroyed and thus the Sith will be reborn". The sith equivalent of balance: by killing you give birth.

"All the Sith" is Palpatine's line of course.

The throne was ancient and so were those wayfinders. So that seems to be the idea.

In fact, older than the Rule Of Two. It is curious how Palpatine says to Rey 'it is your birth right to rule here. It is in our blood.

So the throne was also his by blood. Maybe an ancestor of Palpatine sit on that throne ages ago.

https://www.reddit.com/r/TheSequels/comments/1ohfgrc/palpatines\_ancient\_bloodline/

And Palpatine would have begun as a Rule Of Two sith, Darth Sidious, only to become Palpatine: unlike Sidious, a bloodline name. Hence his fixation with blood, a fixation he impressed on Kylo and tried to impress on Rey.