FAST-DS 2026: Some of my initial thoughts
These are just my initial thoughts and given how crazy government's interpretation of Category 1 is, I am 100% sure that my own approach to some of these issues is bound to change over next few months.
I remember about 3 weeks back, I had commented (as another user pointed out late last night) that these two categories should operate independently. Yet, here we are.
Anyway, I hope some of the thoughts below are helpful for our community.
1. Category 1 is capped at ₹1 crore, so the maximum payable is ₹60 lakh
Category 1 (Section 133, Table Sl. No. 1) covers undisclosed foreign assets and undisclosed foreign income. The payment is 30% tax plus an additional amount equal to that tax, so 60% all-in.
The eligibility condition is that the aggregate value of the undisclosed asset (valued as on 31.03.2026) plus the undisclosed foreign income must not exceed ₹1 crore.
₹1 crore × 60% = ₹60 lakh. That is the ceiling. With up to 2% delay interest if you use the extension window, the worst case is about ₹61.2 lakh.
Above ₹1 crore you are not taxed more, you are ineligible. FAQ Q20 confirms this: at ₹6.5 crore, "the assessee will not be eligible to avail the scheme."
| Aggregate value | Outcome |
|---|---|
| ₹1.00 crore | Pay ₹60 lakh, immunity under BMA |
| ₹1.01 crore | Scheme unavailable, full BMA exposure intact |
It is a cliff, not a slab. No partial or proportionate relief above the cap.
Since many of you are worrying that the 60% tax would apply on all foreign assets with no upper limit. It does not. The scheme is for small taxpayers, and above ₹1 crore of undisclosed value it does not apply at all. But yes, it means you are not eligible for any protection either. More on this later.
2. Assets acquired during NRI/RNOR years fall in Category 2
Category 2 (Section 133, Table Sl. No. 2) covers an asset located outside India which was already offered to tax, or was acquired when the assessee was a non-resident, but was not declared in the relevant Schedule of the return.
Cost: flat fee of ₹1 lakh, provided aggregate value does not exceed ₹5 crore.
So foreign assets built up out of income earned while you were non-resident are not treated as undisclosed income. The default is a Schedule FA reporting failure, not tax evasion, and it is priced at ₹1 lakh flat whether the assets are worth ₹40 lakh or ₹4 crore.
FAQ Q48 confirms the amount invested in the declared asset is not added to your total income under either the Income-tax Act or the BMA. Declaring does not retrospectively make your NRI-period earnings taxable in India.
What Section 43 of the BMA actually says, and who it does not help
The exposure being cured here is Section 43 of the Black Money Act: ₹10 lakh per year for failing to furnish information, or furnishing inaccurate particulars, about a foreign asset in a return filed under section 139(1), 139(4) or 139(5). The ITAT in several cases has held that where the source of acquisition is fully explainable, and even where the income was declared but Schedule FA was missed, the BMA penalties should not apply.
Before assuming you need the scheme, check three limits in Section 43 itself.
It applies only to a resident other than not ordinarily resident. Your defaulting years are ROR years. Years in which you were NRI or RNOR carry no Schedule FA obligation, so no Section 43 default arises for them. If you used the RNOR window after returning, your exposed years may be far fewer than you assume.
The ₹20 lakh proviso. Section 43 does not apply to an asset or assets other than immovable property where the aggregate value does not exceed ₹20 lakh. Whether this applies prospectively (from 2024 or retroactively is something even experts keep arguing).
The ₹5 lakh bank account proviso. It does not apply to one or more bank accounts with an aggregate balance not exceeding ₹5 lakh at any time during the previous year.
If you are a student or early-career professional with a small foreign account or a modest RSU holding, run these thresholds first. You may have no Section 43 exposure at all, in which case the ₹1 lakh fee buys you nothing.
Remember, this does not mean they won't ever issue you a notice. It only means that the end outcome should be in your favor.
The bank account valuation issue
The ₹5 crore cap is measured on fair market value under Rule 3. For a foreign bank account, that is the sum of every deposit made from the day the account was opened up to 31.03.2026, not the closing balance.
Withdrawals do not reduce it. The only exclusions are re-deposits of amounts previously withdrawn from the same account, and amounts moved into another declared asset.
The FAQ's own example (Q30):
• Total deposits: $6,000
• Total withdrawals: $1,600
• Actual balance: $4,400
• Declared value: $4,900
The value exceeds the balance, because an un-redeposited withdrawal does not reduce anything.
Applied to a long-running foreign salary account, twelve years of monthly credits spent on living costs can aggregate to several crore even if the account holds $20,000 today. That figure counts against the ₹5 crore cap. If you have an account like this, compute it before assuming you are within the limit.
Using both categories together
A common fact pattern is a returning NRI with a Schedule FA lapse on the assets plus some genuinely undisclosed interest or dividend income. That is Category 2 on one part and Category 1 on the other.
Whether both can be filed together, and how the two thresholds interact if they are, is not something I have a position on. Atleast not yet.
The FAQ allows repeated entries in Form 1 and the two caps are drafted separately, which suggests it is contemplated**, but I have not seen it confirmed. If anyone has, please say so. As we start filing form 1, will share more on it.**
3. If FAST-DS is not available: the ITR-U gap
If you are over the thresholds, the scheme is shut. ITR-U under section 139(8A) gets suggested as the fallback, for as many of the last four assessment years as remain open. Nothing in FAST-DS bars it.
The usual working assumption is that ITR-U and a regular return are on the same footing: disclose the foreign income or asset, pay the additional tax, and you are insulated from the Black Money Act. That assumption does not survive the text.
When the Updated Return was introduced in 2022, Section 4 of the Black Money Act was not amended to match. Section 4(1)(a) brings in foreign income that has not been disclosed in a return furnished within the time specified in Explanation 2 to section 139(1), or under section 139(4) or section 139(5). Clause (b) covers the case where a return was required under section 139 but none was furnished within those same windows.
Original return, belated return, revised return. Section 139(8A) is not in that list.
On the plain text, disclosing foreign income in an ITR-U does not take that income outside clauses (a) and (b). It remains undisclosed foreign income as the BMA defines it, because the disclosure was made through a return the definition does not recognise. The ITR-U lets you settle your income-tax dues. It does not, by its own force, buy you out of the BMA definition.
Interestingly, if you read the FAST-DS documentation, it does not make this differentiation. So, just my guess – that the government is not making this distinction based on section 4. But then I would not read too much into it and often government says one thing at ministerial level but operate differently at the AO level. Who knows!
Until Section 4 is amended to include 139(8A), this deserves more caution than the conventional wisdom suggests.
Regardless, given how Black money is defined in the Act, for pure foreign asset disclosures above 5 cr, ITR-U should still offer protection.
Separately, and regardless of everything above: file Schedule FA correctly from this year onward. It helps you atleast at Tribunal level litigation.
4. Timelines
Filing window: 16 August 2026 to 31 December 2026. No declaration can be filed after that.
Filing Form 1 starts a second clock:
1. Form 1 filed electronically
2. Form 2 (order stating the amount payable) issued within 1 month from the end of the month in which the declaration was made
3. Payment due within 2 months from the end of the month in which the Form 2 order is received
4. Extension of up to a further 2 months, with simple interest at 1% per month or part month
5. Outer limit of 4 months from the end of the month the Form 2 order was passed. Miss it and the benefit of the scheme lapses and the declaration is treated as void
6. Form 3 (intimation of payment with proof) filed within the payment period
7. Form 4 (certificate confirming payment) issued within 1 month from the end of the month the Form 3 was received
| File September 2026 | File 31 December 2026 | |
|---|---|---|
| Form 2 by | 31 Oct 2026 | 31 Jan 2027 |
| Payment due | 31 Dec 2026 | 31 Mar 2027 |
| Outer limit with interest | 28 Feb 2027 | 31 May 2027 |
This is my reading of the timelines. Would love to review this is there are alternative interpretations.
Filing later does push the payment date later. The reason to start now is the preparation, not the payment date. Valuation reports from a recognised valuer in the country where the asset sits take weeks, and reconstructing years of bank statements for the deposit aggregation takes longer. So start working on it but file only when you are hundred percent sure of your data.
5. The 20% safe harbour, and why not to rush the filing
FAQ Q36 / Rule 5(2): for assets other than a bank account, a variance not exceeding 20% of the fair market value you declared will not, by itself, render the declaration invalid or void on grounds of misrepresentation, suppression of facts, or furnishing false particulars.
If you declared D and the AO determines A, you are protected while A ≤ 1.20 × D.
| Declared | AO determines | Variance as % of declared | Result |
|---|---|---|---|
| ₹50 lakh | ₹56 lakh | 12% | Within band |
| ₹50 lakh | ₹60 lakh | 20% | At the edge |
| ₹50 lakh | ₹62 lakh | 24% | Outside band |
The base is the declared value, not the AO's figure, so the more you understate, the smaller the absolute cushion.
What "void" means
In the BMA's 2015 compliance window and IDS 2016, a declaration voided for misrepresentation was treated as never made, and amounts already paid were not refunded. The FAST-DS architecture looks similar.
The failure mode is therefore: you pay up to ₹60 lakh, the declaration is void, the money likely does not come back, and you face BMA proceedings with an itemised declaration and supporting documents already filed. That is worse than not having filed.
Four situations the band does not obviously solve
Bank account understatement. You declare an account at ₹80 lakh. The AO reconstructs the deposit history under Rule 3 and arrives at ₹92 lakh, because some credits were missed in the aggregation. Bank accounts are explicitly carved out of the 20% band, so there is no cushion here at all. The logic of the carve-out is defensible, since other assets require a valuation judgement while a bank account under Rule 3 is arithmetic. The practical problem is that this is simultaneously the hardest computation in the scheme and the one with zero margin, and for most returning NRIs the bank account is the main asset.
Category 2 close to the cap. You declare ₹4.6 crore. The AO determines ₹5.2 crore. That is a 13% variance, comfortably inside the band, so the declaration is not void for misrepresentation. But the aggregate now exceeds ₹5 crore, and exceeding ₹5 crore means ineligibility. Rule 5(2) protects against invalidity on grounds of misrepresentation, suppression or false particulars. It says nothing about the thresholds in Section 133. The same problem exists on the Category 1 side at ₹1 crore: declare ₹95 lakh, AO determines ₹1.12 crore, variance 17.9% and within the band, aggregate over the cap.
Asset-by-asset or aggregate? You declare six assets. Five are accurate, one is 40% understated, but the portfolio total is within 8% of the AO's figure. Protected or not? The wording ("20% of the fair market value declared") reads asset-level to me, which would mean one bad valuation among ten is enough to put you outside the band. I have not seen this confirmed either way and would like to be corrected.
Indexed cost versus a market valuation. You relied on the Rule 3 deeming, under which indexed cost of acquisition is the FMV where market valuation is not carried out. The AO commissions a valuation and arrives at double. Does the deeming shield you outright, or does the 20% band apply and fail?
Two further limits worth stating plainly. Omitting an asset entirely is not covered - the band applies asset by asset to valuation, and leaving something out of Form 1 is suppression of facts with no tolerance. And "by itself" is doing real work - the protection covers a valuation divergence standing alone, so variance plus an omitted account, or variance plus a document that does not support the claimed acquisition, falls outside it.
Headroom near a threshold
| Category | Cap | Declared value that survives a full 20% uplift |
|---|---|---|
| Category 1 | ₹1 crore | up to ~₹83.3 lakh |
| Category 2 | ₹5 crore | up to ~₹4.17 crore |
You cannot understate deliberately to create headroom, since that is the conduct the voidness provision targets. The point is that if your honest valuation lands in the top ~17% of either cap, the safe harbour will not protect you and a defensible valuation report will.
Practical steps
1. Get valuation reports for immovable property, unquoted shares, jewellery, art, and partnership/LLP interests. Form 1 requires them where valuation is carried out.
2. Reconcile every bank account with actual statements.
3. Treat the indexed-cost fallback as a trade-off. It is simple but leaves the market-value limb open to argument.
4. Keep your workings. The band protects a defensible estimate, not a number you cannot explain.
5. Do not file a rushed declarations. An incorrect declaration can cost you both the payment and the immunity.