Three retrievals, one transferable embryo — what would your next step be?
Hi everyone,
Reposting now that I have complete information from all three retrievals. We're still waiting for our clinic's multidisciplinary review.
I know Reddit can't replace medical advice, but I'd love to understand how you would interpret this pattern and what you'd discuss if this were your patient.
I'm 29 and my husband is 30. We're doing IVF for genetic testing rather than known infertility. With autosomal dominant genetic issue (50% chance of passing it on).
Cycle 1
Protocol
Gonal-F 225→237.5 IU
Orgalutran
Ovidrel trigger
Results
26 eggs
25 mature
21 fertilised (ICSI)
Embryos
Day 5: 4 × Grade 1, 1 × Grade 2, 1 degenerated
Day 6/7: 4CC, 3CC, 4AB → downgraded to 4CC, 5CC
Outcome
4 blastocysts
0 suitable for biopsy
Clinic impression: Egg quality. Developed OHSS.
Cycle 2
Protocol
Gonal-F 62.5 IU (later increased)
Pergoveris 150 IU
Orgalutran
Ovidrel trigger
Results
17 eggs
15 mature
10 fertilised
Embryos
3 failed to survive ICSI
2 failed fertilisation
5 arrested at single-cell stage
1 arrested during compaction
1 poor-quality cavitating embryo
2 degenerated by Day 5
1 reached biopsy (4AB)
Outcome
1 euploid, genetically unaffected embryo (currently frozen)
Clinic impression: Egg quality still discussed. Possible sperm contribution also raised.
Cycle 3
Protocol
Pergoveris 225→250 IU
Orgalutran
Ovidrel trigger
Changes
NAC
Myo-inositol
IMSI
Zymot
Results
12 eggs
12 mature
8 fertilised
2 poor-quality blastocysts
0 suitable for biopsy
Additional information
Female testing:
AMH 16
Two laparoscopies - endosalpingiosis found and removed, two big cysts removed no endometriosis found. Suspected adenomyosis.
All other tests fine but slimes raised ana levels but further testing didn't uncover anything.
Male testing:
DFI 18% (normal)
HDS 26% (high)
Current clinic opinion:
Likely a combination of egg and sperm factors rather than one isolated issue. Leaning towards a genetic level issue that can't be explained (we love kicking rare and unusual goals).
Overall:
55 eggs retrieved
52 mature
39 fertilised
7 blastocysts
1 embryo suitable for biopsy
1 euploid/unaffected embryo
Questions:
Looking at the three cycles together, where do you think the biggest attrition is occurring?
Does this pattern make you think primarily egg factor, sperm factor, both, lab variation, or something else?
Does having one euploid 4AB embryo make you think this is largely a numbers game, or does the overall pattern still suggest something unusual?
Have we already implemented most evidence-based interventions (IMSI, Zymot, supplements etc.), or are there other changes or investigations you would discuss?
If this were your patient or a member of your own family, would you transfer the existing embryo, do another retrieval first, pursue further investigations, or something else?
Thank you so much for reading. I'd really appreciate your thoughts.