u/Western-Rush878

Title

Quran 2:49 talks about how the newborn boys were slaughtered will the “nisa” were kept alive. In the Biblical tradition which this story parallels, the Pharaoh ordered the killing of all newborn boys while all newborn girls would be kept alive. Furthermore, this is also seen in the Quran with Moses being sent away (or else Pharaoh would’ve killed him). It seems weird to pair newborn boys with adult women in specific. Rather, going off the biblical tradition and what the verse itself says, it seems to make more sense to interpret this verse as females as a whole (including newborn ones)

I’m also willing to accept that nisa’s meaning could change depending on the context.

To me, the verse reads like this:

*You have an orphan

*You must constantly, while the child is growing up, test them to see whether or not they are responsible/mature

*THEN, at one point, the orphan reaches a marriageable age (meaning you can already marry them. They’ve crossed this threshold)

*At the point of this orphan reaching the marriageable age (once again, you can already marry them), you make a value judgement on whether or not they’re mature enough to get their inheritance.

*If they’re not mature enough to get the inheritance, you can still marry them, but you have to continue testing them until the point they are mature enough to get their inheritance.

So to me this reads like a 2 step process. First, you must reach the age of marriage. Only then can you check to see if an orphan is mature enough to get their inheritance.

To me this doesn’t read like mental maturity is a requirement for marriage, but please note I’m working with the English translation and that might change things.

Things such as the basmala being conistently written with 19 letters, there being 114 basmalas present in the Quran (divisible by 19), 114 chapters in the Quran (divisible by 19), al-Rahman and al-Rahim (part of the basmala) seem to be mentioned a multiple of 19 times in relation to Allah (as well as the word Allah itself maybe, but that requires you to remove 2 verses, Q 9:127-128, from the Quran). Another one I've heard is that chapter 1, verse 1 of the Quran has 4 words, and if you combine all these elements together you get 114. Then finally there are some different letter counts you can do to also reach the number 19 or a multiple of 19.

These seem to be some major features of the Quran and contain within them numbers that occur a multiple of 19 times.

Some instant counterclaims I can think of is that if you include the basmalas in the word counts for Allah, al-Rahman and al-Rahim, you instantly lose any resemblance of a multiple of 19 (and I see no reason why you wouldn't count the basmalas, they're part of the Quran and singled out as important parts of the code 19 miracle in the first place). Then, there are other major features of the Quran that don't contain a number 19 feature. For example, only 4 chapters in the Quran have a verse count that is divisible by 19, the mysterious letters of the Quran don't show up a multiple of 19 times, the total number of words in the Quran, as well as letters, doesn't seem to be a multiple of 19, the total number of verses in the Quran isn't a multiple of 19 (unless you sum up all the basmalas and subtract the 2 Quranic verses, but by itself it isn't), many other important words and phrases in the Quran aren't a multiple of 19, and the number of chapters that have a word/letter count that is divisible by 19 isn't itself a multiple of 19.

Finally, you have the issue of Quran 74:30-31 seemingly having no reference to being a mathematical pattern, as well as the idea that depending on the version of the Quran you use (whether that be the Indo-Pak Hafs script, or even the Warsh Quran), several of your counts will go entirely differently.

Nonetheless, I'm interested to hear your thoughts: do you all view this as an intentional pattern or structure, or a simple case of the Texas sharpshooter fallacy as well as being a coincidence?

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hadith_of_Gabriel

Wikipedia page giving an overview of it. This being Ṣaḥīḥ Muslim, Faith (Book 1), Ḥadīth 1

[Continued from title]: which Mohammed seems to at the very least be paraphrasing. However, what if Mohammed thought that Isaiah 42 was a reference to him, since it mentions Kedar (whose descendants are traditionally understood to be Arabs) as well as the land of Sela (which in Mohammed's context could be understood as the mountain rage near Medina also called Sela)?

In other words, Mohammed interpreted Jesus as referring to him, in the process citing Isaiah 42, which contains verses which could be reinterpreted as being about Mohammed and locations which also could be reinterpreted in Mohammed's context.

As a result, this could've bolstered Mohammed's confidence in the idea that the previous scriptures mention him.

Thoughts?

Reading the Quran it doesn’t seem like Abraham gives birth to 2 different “tribes” of people, but I’ve heard that it’s traditionally believed in Islam that Abraham paved the way for Israelites and Arabs