Is Mr. Darcy exaggerating the social gap between himself and Elizabeth due to his pride?
Well, yes, there is certainly a social gap between them. The difference in wealth is astronomical; and Mr. Darcy has connections to the aristocracy, while some of Elizabeth's relatives aren't even part of the landed gentry. It's certainly a bit of a mismatch, but I can't help but wonder, if we were to look at the context realistically (and ignore potential fictional dramatization for plot purposes), how much of Mr. Darcy's original perception of the divide between himself and Elizabeth is exaggerated as a result of his pride, and how much could be accepted as a very real concern that reflects Regency attitudes? Would many people in Mr. Darcy's circles have truly been very critical?
As Elizabeth says in response to Lady Catherine, she and Mr. Darcy are "equal," she is the daughter of a gentleman, after all (ch. 56). She isn't a working-class girl, this isn't a Cinderella story, or the fourth season of Bridgerton.
Yet, Lady Catherine (also guilty of pride) strongly believes that marriage to Elizabeth would "disgrace" Mr. Darcy "in the eyes of everybody," and "ruin him in the opinion of all his friends, and make him the contempt of the world" (ch. 56).
But then Colonel Fitzwilliam (not prideful, simply realistic) implies that if younger sons could afford the luxury of marrying without paying "attention to money" (ch. 33), he possibly would've considered pursuing a love match (though he would definitely never dare to think of marrying anyone outside of the gentry/aristocracy, but he would perhaps be fine with the woman being poorer than him and not having grand connections if he genuinely liked her).
In the end, Mr. Darcy is not said to be grievously injured by marrying Elizabeth; his friends don't abandon him, he doesn't suffer financially, neither does his marriage affect the future prospects of his sister; even Lady Catherine eventually succumbs (and I'm sure that if he had married an actress, for example, she would've never forgiven him). So my question is, especially for those familiar with Regency reality and perhaps even real-life similar cases, is Mr. Darcy exaggerating how much the world would be against such a match due to his own pride and prejudices, or did Austen carefully omit the negative aspects that would've plagued this union in order not to spoil the romantic conclusion for the reader?