r/learnspanish

So the lesson i just did explain that ir + gerundio is to say that something is gradually increasing, but i cant really wrap my head around it? Like take the sentence "va ahorrando dinero al final de cada mes" vs " esta ahorrando dinero al final de cada mes" both translate to me as "he is saving money at the end of each month. But do they actaully mean different things?

Listado de sinalefas

"escalera arriba" (aa) -> escalerarriba (correct?)

"saeta emplumada" (ae) -> saetemplunada (correct?)

"oferta injusta" (ai)

"lamina oblonga" (ao)

"casa humilde" (au)

"madre abnegada" (ea)

"muerte audaz" (ea)

"puede escribir" (ee)

"nombre ilustre" (ei)

"tiene orgullo" (eo)

"sabe usar" (eu)

"casi apagado" (ia)

"mi estudio" (ie)

"casi imposible" (ii)

"mi obligación" (io)

"casi usurero" (iu)

"mano ancha" (ea)

"lobo estepario" (oe)

"libro ignífugo" (oi)

"sumo obispo" (00)

"cono urticante" (ou)

"su ángel" (ua)

"por su honor" (uo)

"llega a adorar" (aaa)

presume ahondar" (eao)

"día atroz" (iaa)

"diaria obligación" (iao)

"justicia humana (iau)

"palacio imperial" (ioi)

"dispuesto a obedecer" (oao)

regia autoridad" (iaau)

"corrió a esperarlo" (ioae)

"crío autoritario" (ioau)

"palacio augusto" (ioau)

"inicuo augurio" (uoau

Dinero hace ... tiempo

Puedo hablar 

Cuando amanece estoy ... contento

Olvidado hace ... tiempo

Para estudiar ... arte

Most English speakers get stuck here for a reason that has nothing to do with Spanish. English gives you two ways to say the same sentence, and one of them hides the answer.

I gave the book to her.

I gave her the book.

Same meaning. But in the second one, "her" sits exactly where a direct object would sit, right after the verb, so your instinct reads it as one. Spanish only ever thinks of it the first way.

That gives you a test. Take the English sentence and see whether you can put "to" or "for" in front of the word. If you can, it's indirect.

"I bought my mother flowers" becomes "I bought flowers for my mother", so the flowers are direct and my mother is indirect. Le compré flores. Whereas "I saw my mother" can't become "I saw to my mother", so she's direct. La vi.

Now the part that makes this much smaller than it looks. The distinction only shows up in the third person. Me, te, nos and os don't change at all: me viste (you saw me) and me diste el libro (you gave me the book) use the same pronoun. So everything you can actually get wrong lives in lo, la, los, las against le, les.

One warning, because it catches nearly everyone. The personal a is not a marker of indirect objects. Vi a María is a direct object; the a is there because María is a person. Treat every a as a signal for le and you'll be wrong constantly.

In practice most people stop analysing and just learn which verbs take le. Decir, dar, pedir, preguntar, contar, escribir, regalar, explicar — the person you tell, give to or ask is indirect, every time. Le dije, le di, le pedí. Say those enough and the rest stops needing a rule.

Me puedes matar, me puedes dejar, pero nunca tendrás que te deje de amar.

I got confused by this one because I'm used to translate 'tener que' to 'to have to'

My wife and I homestead. We have our chickens, ducks, goats, vegetables, fruit trees and bushes, etc. What is the Spanish term for homesteading or having a small family farm? Thank you.

English is my mother tongue. I can't hear the "u" in prueba. What I hear what I listen as closely as I can to Spanish speakers saying "prueba" is NOT (using American English phonetic spelling here) "proo-ay-bah", all I hear is "pray-bah" as if the word was spelled "preba." In other forms, I can hear it: pruebe and pruebo, I can correctly hear "proo-ay-bay" and "proo-ay-boh." But not with prueba.

Hola todo

I understand that 'Novia' tends to refer to an engaged woman. If so, how should I refer to her?

I get that one is used in news but do they have different purposes? dos criminales fueron detenidos... se detuvieron dos criminales. I don't think you would say la cerveza fue tomado but se tomo' la cerveza? any general rule or context might help

For example,

Venir can become viene. poder becomes puede. How do we now when the verb is going to transform and it's not a regular verb?

I understand it isn’t part of any dictionary but all the ai models I asked said it was definitely a verb used in everyday casual speech.

Probably the most vague question out there. Met a guy who only speaks Spanish, I only speak English. Has anyone learned Spanish/ taught English this way?

"I must invite him " is lo debo invitar instead of debo lo invitar. Why is that?

I thought the lo can be before/after the verb inivtar only?

A practicar, hablo con mi perro en español. Intenté decir "there's nothing here for you". ¿Es correcta decir "No hay nada aquí para ti" o "Hay nada aquí para ti"?

I know some Spanish I took 4 years of it in high school, and was wondering if I could speak chat with someone who also knows Spanish and English. That would be really cool and helpful

I thought that when using perfect tense and reflexive verbs, the te/se/me always goes before the haber, like “se ha duchado”, but in the book I am reading, the author has several times tacked it on at the end of the haber, like so: “Habíase acercado à la parte trasera de la víbora…” Is this a style of the author? an older version/ literary version? the book IS from 1942