u/Crazy_Guidance_2220

And no, I'm not going to talk about Aisha.

I'm going to quote the Quran, whose authenticity no muslim can deny.

Quran 4:6: "Test ˹the competence of˺ the orphans until they reach a marriageable age. Then if you feel they are capable of sound judgment, return their wealth to them."

This verse clearly states two different thresholds for the handing over of property to orphans. First they need to reach a marriageable age. And at this point, they can get married. Then they need to be tested for sound judgement for the handing over of property.

If you read the verse clearly, sound judgement is not included in the "marriageable age", it comes after the completion of marriageable age. Therefore, marriageable age in this context means puberty only.

If sound judgment were part of the definition of marriageable age, there would be no reason for the Quran to introduce sound judgment as a separate test afterward. The sequence is unmistakable: first they reach the age considered suitable for marriage; then their judgment is evaluated for the separate purpose of determining whether they can receive control of their property. If sound judgement was included in the marriageable age, then this verse would become grammatically incorrect.

That distinction matters because it means the Qur’an does not establish full intellectual or psychological maturity as a prerequisite for marriage. It establishes a marriageable threshold and a separate threshold for financial competence. If a person has reached the former but not the latter, the verse's structure still makes sense: they can be marriageable while not yet being sufficiently judicious to control their property

Quran 4:24: "And also forbidden for you are married women, except ˹female˺ captives in your possession."

The context of this verse is that it is refering to the women that are prohibited to men for marriage. I'm horrified by the second half. How can Allah allow marriage (or even sexual intercourse) with married war captives? Even the captive part is a lot for me.

And I'm not satisfied with the mainstream justification, that says captivity annuls the previous marriage to non-believers. Because Allah explicitly categorizes these women under "married women", if their marriage was annulled at the moment of capture, then categorizing them under married women would make this verse grammatically wrong which isn't possible.

Can any person, who is knowledgeable in this area, please help me?

Becoming openly exmuslim does not mean bragging about it to everyone (which is gonna get you lynched in no time), it just means informing your family and friends that you are no longer a muslim, instead of pretending to be one in front of them.

P.S. this post is targeted to those who are currently closeted exmuslim living in Pakistan.

View Poll

We have all received Islamic names from our parents and I was thinking about changing mine as soon as I move abroad. Because personally, I don't want my identity to be associated with Islam.

Are you guys okay with living with an Islamic name for the rest of your lives?

How many of y'all know about this? Apparently many muslims are unaware about this hadith (also note the brutality)

Sahih al-Bukhari 5686

Narrated Anas:

The climate of Medina did not suit some people, so the Prophet (ﷺ) ordered them to follow his shepherd, i.e. his camels, and drink their milk and urine (as a medicine). So they followed the shepherd that is the camels and drank their milk and urine till their bodies became healthy. Then they killed the shepherd and drove away the camels. When the news reached the Prophet (ﷺ) he sent some people in their pursuit. When they were brought, he cut their hands and feet and their eyes were branded with heated pieces of iron.