Would the classic 3 British Empiricists (Locke, Berkeley, Hume) be considered "analytic philosophers"?
What is the general consensus on this question? I understand that the definition of analytic vs continental is more of a "family resemblance" thing rather than strict definition but would they generally be considered analytic? Is the perceived border between analytic and continental essentially modern analytic philosophy from the 20th century onward vs everything else being continental or is it specifically about where the philosophers come from ("Continental Europe"). I saw in a recent debate somebody refer to Hume as a continental philosopher so it makes me wonder.