u/MildDeontologist

Is there an "ism" word for the Coptic faith?

If we agree on 0.33333... = 1/3, then we can prove it [that .9 repeating is equal to 1] another way too:

0.33333... = 1/3 | •3

<=> 0.99999... = 3/3

<=> 0.99999... = 1

Individual figures, not schools.

I have seen/read a notion that the very fact that the world exists demonstrates a God. But how would or could this be translated into the form of an argument?

If our goal is to prove Christianity is the one true religion, then why use natural theology to prove some creator exists, then prove Christianity? Why not just prove Christianity?

My understanding is that Eastern Orthodox posits the Eucharist (consecrated host) is the body of Christ physically and metaphysically, and not (merely) symbolically or spiritually; and that the explanation for how the host becomes Christ (the logical explanation/process behind what is actually happening to get the bread to Christ) does not matter. I believe Orthodox posits the Eucharist is important but we should be focused on salvation, not the academic details of theology.

This might also be the view of other non-Protestant, non-Catholic churches like Oriental Orthodox, the Assyrian Church of the East, and Ancient Church of the East.

Contrast this to Catholicism, which states transubstantiation is absolutely the way that the bread transforms to Christ.

What I want to know is: if the Eucharist is physically and metaphysically the body of Christ, and if transubstantiation is not the only explanation of this, then what are the other explanations (again, not that we necessarily need to posit some exact explanation at all)?

Who were some well known/respected philosophers (and mathematicians, scientists, and other scholars outside of theology/religion) who were deacons? Not transitional deacons before becoming priests, but permanent deacons.

Is there such a thing as a charismatic (as in the Catholic Charismatic Renewal) Mass? Or other charismatic rituals/services?

In real estate, there is a concept called Conformity which states that a property value is maximized when a home matches the size, style, age, and condition of surrounding homes. In other words, homes will be priced higher when the neighborhood is harmonious.

What accounts for this phenomenon?

Why never stock futures, forwards, or something else? And, why never non-stock securities, like debt instruments?

I get why one could argue that debt instruments as employee compensation do not make much sense, but I believe in certain circumstances they could.

So why is employee stock compensation by option and (to a lesser extent) warrant so predominant as a form of compensation?

What taxes does a tax exempt entity not pay?

I remember hearing Steve Keen say economies of scale (at least can) continue forever. He cites companies like Amazon which, instead of flattening out and seeing a diseconomy of scale as predicted, they just keep scaling and getting more efficient as they expand to become enormously big. Keen says diseconomies of scale do not hold up to empirical scrutiny. Is this true? What are some example of diseconomies of scale in practice?

There are natural languages (English, Russian, Farsi, etc.) and formal languages (formal logic, math, computer languages like Python, and sheet music). But what are examples/types of formal languages besides the 4 I listed there?

According to Steve Keen, which I know this sub takes issue with, orthodox theory which posits marginal costs should be rising. But Keen cites empirical studied that show about 89% to 99% of firms have constant or falling marginal costs, which means that the orthodox labor supply/demand curve is fundamentally flawed. He goes on to say that the actual labor supply is not a smooth, upward sloping curve, and that workers are not paid their marginal product.