![[Feedback Request] Did I accurately frame the semantic evolution of the Hebrew root Q-R-B (ק-ר-ב / qāroḇ) in this video essay?](https://external-preview.redd.it/yp6UnJ9oyEXyn3eu9jvWcPcZdhV_RXWyFFDcl9uRzxk.jpeg?width=320&crop=smart&auto=webp&s=7d415efdb3cdd6a3950ff19800299ac13a55f3fc)
[Feedback Request] Did I accurately frame the semantic evolution of the Hebrew root Q-R-B (ק-ר-ב / qāroḇ) in this video essay?
I recently published a video essay examining the etymology and semantic scope of the Biblical Hebrew root ק-ר-ב (Q-R-B), specifically the adjective קָרוֹב (qāroḇ), which is commonly translated into modern English as "near" (e.g., Psalm 34:18).
Video link: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=1O5hW0mNook
In the video, I explore the contrast between how modern English speakers hear "nearness" (often as a subjective/emotional feeling) versus how qāroḇ operates in Ancient Near Eastern texts—primarily as a spatial, legal, and relational category (denoting structural proximity, legal obligation in kinship, or geographic reachability in Cities of Refuge). I also note the root's emotional neutrality (e.g., an enemy being qāroḇ / close enough to attack).
Since this community specializes in historical linguistics and etymology, I’d love your feedback and critique on the video’s linguistic content:
Linguistic Accuracy: Did I present the semantic field of the root Q-R-B accurately? Are there nuance or Semitic cognates (such as Akkadian qerēbu or Ugaritic qrb) that I should have addressed to strengthen the analysis?
Translation vs. Semantic Shift: Is it fair to characterize the difference between ancient legal/spatial proximity and modern affective "nearness" as a semantic shift, or is it strictly a limitation of English Bible translation choices?
Clarity & Explanation: From a linguistics standpoint, does the script explain these semantic concepts clearly for a general audience without oversimplifying the Hebrew?
I’m eager to hear your corrections, suggestions, and linguistic insights to improve future deep-dives!