Is Rural Folk voting power?
Quick questions for the historian victorians, is it historically accurate for the Rural Folk to gain so much clout when universal suffrage is enacted before de-peasantisation? Did the Rural Folk really vote in their interests that much - did they even vote much at all when able to? I can only think of the 1848 French elections as an example, where Napoleon won in a landslide. Was this because all the peasants went out to vote for him?? Sorry if it sounds dumb but I'm genuinely curious. Thanks