u/TheeImmortalPaladin

This is a fact that has been bothering me for a while now, when did they get /ɪ/? And if it isn't in Proto-Germanic, then why does almost every single Germanic language have one, and when exactly did they get it? Did it emerge out in late dialects of PG; but why is Old English ĭ reconstructed with [i]? If it didn't, than why is Gothic ĭ usually reconstructed as [ɪ]? And if Old English ĭ was [i], when did it become [ɪ]? And when did the Nordic languages develop [ɪ]? In Proto-Norse it's reconstructed as [i], but in Old Icelandic it is usually reconstructed as [ɪ]?

I know i'm circling a lot, but this has just bothered me a lot, and I just can't make sense of it myself, it just doesn't make sense that PG wouldn't just have /ɪ/; and I know there is a small amount of evidence of it being [i], but how does it make sense?

Anglish is cool in some ways, but it annoys me that it really only focuses on the words, not about the grammar, the phonology, and rarely about the orthography. If you're trying to undo the Norman Invasion, you have to account for all four aforementioned things, and evolve English from 1066 with regular sound changes that happened in languages like Frisian, Dutch, and Low German to make a true unfrench English.
I know that is really complicated, and that many people would have different solutions, and many different ways to evolve English, like would there still be the Great Vowel shift, would we assume it retained its complex case system? There are definitely other things that would have to be thought about, but I think just changing what words we use isn't enough; at least devise different grammar that Anglish should use for it to be more Germanic, or completely fix the orthography: base it off of the aforementioned languages, make it less Latin and French and Greek; maybe even base it off of older conservative Scots orthography.

This is a fact that has been bothering me for a while now, when did they get /ɪ/? And if it isn't in Proto-Germanic, then why does almost every single Germanic language have one, and when exactly did they get it? Did it emerge out in late dialects of PG; but why is Old English ĭ reconstructed with [i]? If it didn't, than why is Gothic ĭ usually reconstructed as [ɪ]? And if Old English ĭ was [i], when did it become [ɪ]? And when did the Nordic languages develop [ɪ]? In Proto-Norse it's reconstructed as [i], but in Old Icelandic it is usually reconstructed as [ɪ]?

I know i'm circling a lot, but this has just bothered me a lot, and I just can't make sense of it myself, it just doesn't make sense that PG wouldn't just have /ɪ/; and I know there is a small amount of evidence of it being [i], but how does it make sense?

I can't find any information online on what they spoke, but I would like to know if anyone knows anything about it, whether it was west, east, or north germanic, and just any other details that might be nice to know.

Why do almost no modern texts use it? it's absurd to me, it's like not using <u>, and only writing <v>, which we don't really do, and i just can't get understand why texts like familia romana will use macrons, will use <u>, and will use lowercase letters, punctuation, etc.
And it isn't like it isn't useful at all, it can be very useful because sometimes when it's only written with <i> it is ambiguous: like intuitively in the name Gāius, most beginners would intuitively think it would be pronounced as [ˈgaː.jus], and there are many such cases where it is just ambiguous for whether it is a vowel or a consonant.

I feel like I see so much content made in classical latin, and the renaissance purged medieval latin for being 'impure', but is it really a problem, and is it illegitimate to write and speak latin in a medieval manner, like using ones native language word order, extra prepositions, etc.

How would puer have been pronounce in mediaeval latin? in modern italinate, it is /'pu.er/, identical to classical pronunciation, but in a language like spanish, it would certainly be /pweɾ/, and i'm curious what it would be for mediaeval latin, particularly in france about 11th century; but i would also be interested about different mediaeval latin pronunciations with different times and places!

How do we know where a V was /w/ or /u/ before a consonant? Like, how do we know that lingua was pronounced as /'lin.gʷa/, and that puer was pronounced as /'pu.er/?

Where does stress on a word fall on in old french?

How do we know that words like tuum were actually meant to be uu and not vu? how do we know it wasn't suposed to be tvum, pronounced like /'twu.m/ in classical latin

In most languages grammatical gender in cumbersome because you have to use the right article to line up with the grammatical gender, but latin doesn't have articles, so how does grammatical gender affect latin? Does it only affect the declensions of nouns, or does it do something else

I know word final m and n can nasalise the preceding vowel in classical latin, but what is the high prestige way to pronounce word final m and n? Like, the letter y pronounced by most romans in greek loan words was /i/ or /u/, but if you were extra schloarly, you pronounced as /y/; I'm wondering if there was anything similar going on here, would knowledgeable people pronounce word final m and n, or was nasalising the vowel preceding the consonant more fashionable?

I'm curious for in depth pronunciations of medieval latin:

English pronunciation of latin 1200 - 1600
Carolingian pronunciation of latin in the 800s
What people would have prescribed as classical latin pronunciation (from any time after the fall of the roman empire)
Old french pronunciation of latin
Old italian pronunciation of latin
Old occitan pronunciation of latin

Curious what some major phonological differences are, and some audio recordings of RP 200 years ago would be appreciated.

I'm familiar with the title 'the Unready', such as with Æþelræd the Unready, but I'm looking for more such titles, but there doesn't seem to show very much information with just an online search.

I'm curious if we know of transitional periods between the two futharks, or whether it was a sudden instant change between them, and if the former, some examples would be helpful.
Also, some insight on what might've caused the development and change of the runes.

Aisling has a native language and uses it twice in the movie; once when talking about bugs, presumably it's name, and also used when she is turning pangur bán into some sort of spirit. I'm curious on the details of the language, whether they used an existing language or if they created some sort of fairy language for Aisling.

It's quite clear younger futhark is not properly suited to write old norse, it's missing many sounds so that one rune can represent two different sounds and it's impossible to tell which one, like ᚦ can make both /þ/ and /ð/, and ᛏ m can make /t/ and /d/; my confusion arises because the elder futhark was able to represent all these sounds without ambiguity; each rune representing one sound. It just doesn't make any sense to me that it got worse over time and that they lost necessary letters to represent their language

I’m looking for books that were written from the creation of Rome until the end of the medieval era— no later— and were translated into modern English. I’m most interested about learning Roman and Germanic warfare, but everything else would be good too.
Also, specifying note: I am not looking for books written about their ware fare from a modern point of view, I want to read what they wrote about warfare.