To What Extent Was the Fall of Normandy the Dominant Cause of the Wars of the Roses?
I was reading Dan Jones' War of the Roses book, and was struck with the impression that the speed everything went to shit after Normandy fell in 1450 with the Yorkist reform party basically becoming a thing within months. I'm wondering, to what extent might someone describe the Wars of the Roses' dominant (not monocause) as directly being: "England bet the farm on trying to conquer France and when they lost the blowback was so bad they descended into civil war".
Like, I get Henry being bad at his job was a factor. But, Henry was bad at his job in 1448 and his government wasnt collapsing? And the crisis had started before his catatonia in 1453.