u/duotraveler

I joined a PE-backed medical practice group. During recruiting in 2023, their CEO told me via email that the practice "maxes out" 401(k) contributions through a combination of profit sharing and safe harbor, totaling $66K per year (of course $22.5K is my own deferral).

Fast forward to today — I've received roughly $9K/year in employer contributions, nowhere close to the ~$43.5K I was told to expect. When I asked CEO about the gap, they told me their policy has changed and that the full match only applies to partners.

However, the job listing for my exact position is still publicly advertised today, and it still says "Maximum employer contributions for MDs in a 401(k) plan" — with no mention that this only applies to partners.

I'm planning to leave this practice soon. Before I go, I want to know if there a reasonable chance I could recover any of this shortfall — either through direct negotiation, a labor/benefits dispute, or would this realistically require litigation?

Edit to add

My contract just said "Physician is entitled to participate in any pension plan, 401(k) plan, profit-sharing plan, or similar benefit plan, available generally to similarly situated physicians employed by the Company to the extent permitted by such plans and the applicable statutes and regulations".

My 401 plan document DID separate partner and employee MDs.

Hello, I'm planning to purchase a BMW iX or X5 PHEV with iDrive 8.5 and DAPP (Driving Assistant Professional Package, BMW's automatous driving technology). In theory this should allow hands free driving up to 85 mph on I-5.

When I test drove a 2024 BMW iX around Fife/Tacoma, I found that the DAPP frequently disengaged itself when I set the speed of 65-70 mph. I guess there were constructions and the lane marking is not always clear.

I'm wondering about your driving experience on I-5 in Seattle metro area (From Everett to Olympia). Is DAPP really helpful or do I still need lots of manual inputs?

Hello WCI, I'm comparing 2 practices financially and I want to know if my thinking process is flawed.

• Offer A: 1M buy-in. Total compensation 650K/y. Lock in period of 10 years. After that I have to retire from medicine for 2 years before I can get the 1M (share value at the time) back.
• Offer B: No buy-in, no lock in period. Total compensation 540K/y. No lock in period and I can leave anytime.
• Other assumptions: 7% market return, all extra cash invested in VOO or similar, tax accounted for.
• Assumptions I have not included: possible tax benefits of a K-1 income. I don't know in 10 years what would the buy back value be.

With these assumptions in mind, offer A and offer B results in the same net worth after 10 years (including buy back for option A).

This is a little counterintuitive to me initially. I'm making 110K more per year with offer A. But after accounting for tax and the opportunity cost of 1M initial investment, offer A and B are financially equal, not to mention the flexibility of offer B.

This put some doubts on my mind about anything that requires significant buy-in. A million buy-in requires at least 100-120K/year additional compensation to break even. So I'm kind of hesitating. I've always thought that buy-in to a good business is a good strategy. Would like to know if my rationales/calculations are flawed. For those who had invested significant capital to become a partner, what are your thought process? Thanks!!

Edit to add:

• I'm at my first job, which teaches me well and now I know more about what I want. These 2 offers are my possible second job. For the quality of these 2 practices I honestly don't know. I need to actually work there for several months before I know it's a good practice.
• For offer A, the 1M is calculated as 3.5X of EBITDA divided by # of partners. It's calculated the same when buying out. The facility is running at full capacity so I don't see strong growth here. Possibly builing another facility so not sure. Most things are determined by senior partners, so no much control initially.
• For offer B, just an employed, salaried position with regular schedules.

I’m trying to understand a gate delay I’m seeing at DFW. The inbound aircraft for my flight is AA2239 (ONT --> DFW, N152AA). It landed at 19:48, about 18 minutes behind schedule, and was initially assigned to gate A8.

Based on what I could observe, A8 appeared unoccupied during this entire period. However, the aircraft was held on the ramp (staging area near the future Terminal G site) for 70 minutes before eventually being reassigned to A37.

From an ops perspective, what are the likely constraints here? Specifically, what factors could prevent taxi-in to an apparently empty gate—e.g., gate control/lease restrictions, ramp congestion, unavailable ground crew, towing requirements, or gate still being “occupied” in the system despite being physically empty?

Appreciate any insight into how DFW ramp/gate management works in situations like this. Thanks!!

Edit to add: I'm just thinking due to weather, and national disruptions, the actual flight number handled at DFW should be less than planned. So there would be more ground crew available?

Hi, I initially had Morgan Stanely Access Investing account, a CashPlus account, and the MS Platinum card. MS phased out Access Investing account, so I replaced it with an E*Trade account. My current accounts are:

• Morgan Stanley Platinum CashPlus Account
• AMEX Platinum card for Morgan Stanley
• E*Trade brokerage account

I'm wondering if I can close the E*trade account without losing MS relationship? Does the CashPlus account alone is sufficient to keep my AMEX card? My goal is just to keep the AMEX Platinum card. Thanks!

Hello, I’m looking to buy a used 2024 BMW iX (due to highway assist) and have two questions:

• How can I tell whether a specific iX has air suspension? I’ve heard it significantly improves ride comfort, but I’m not sure which trim or package includes it.
• How quiet is the iX compared with my 2021 X3? My X3 has noticeable highway noise, and I’m wondering whether the iX is meaningfully quieter.

Thanks!!