This is a question that has been on my mind for a while.
Like does egyptian arabic have any grammatical features that or exclusive to itself and dont occur in any other arabic dialects, and no we arent counting the shenanings of the interogetive particles and demonstretives.
So yall please tell me all you know
This is an example of something in my conlang palliwakiua
So my conalng has something i like to call "case balencing particles" and they as implied balance cases, but in what way you might ask, well there aint a better way then showing ya see here goes
Lets say you wanna say
"before the king was born"
Youd say
[ana sakabiniɣiðui saka kusi Giwuqiu ku]
Now lets try breaking this down into more manageble pieces
First of the word order here is vso, technecly, tho its more complicated then that but thats for later
The verb here is [sakabiniɣiðui] which is the pst-3sg-passive form of the word [birth] tho not on its own as there is a missing component that being, [saka] which is a preposition that contributes to the meaning of the verb
Which yes means that this conlang has seperatabele verb elements like english
So heres how the verb works [kibuna+loc+saka]
The base form of the verb is [kibuna] which then puts its object into the locative case, it is paired with the preposition [saka] to complete the meaning.
Ok now onto the next part [ana -- kusi Giwuqiu ku]
So here [kusi] is the before part and it makes objects go into the dative case, now you may ask how can a noun be both in the dative and locative at the same time, well it cant so another solution must be found, since prepositional case effects are stronger then verb case effects the noun is put into the dative hence it being [Giwuqiu]
Ok but then you may ask, how am i gonna know that the verb means [birth] and not some other meaning, well here comes in the part that this whole post is actaully about, the case balancing particle [ana] its put behind the verb to indicate that the verb is effecting the object with its case without actaully making the noun go into the case itself, [ana] is the particle that does this process for the locative case
Ok now thats all good and dandy but what about [ku] and what about me talking chiefly about objects and nouns when the meaning of the sentence clearly indicates that the word king [Giwuqiu] is supposed to be a subject.
Well fret not for there is an explaination for all of this
In my conalng verbs like [kibuna+loc+saka] have a very peculier way of constructing the passive when effected by prepositions like [kusi]
For the subject is turned into an object ,so it can be effected by prepostional cases so the meaning of [before/after x was/is xed] can be expressed,
and then it gets the particle [ku] put after it to signify that its not an actual object but actaully still the subject. So yeah, does that make sense to yall.
So what would this grammatical structure be classified as, and how could i possibly gloss it?
Context:
Egyptian arabic's defult present tense is mostly used when talking about the recent past.
The tense has a gendered first person which is really weird considering that this is the only instince of that happening im the language.
The verbs of this tense have undergone lots of merging which had led to there only being 3 verb forms with this tense
Those being \[the word for eat will be used to demonstrate\]
\[Wæ:kel\] i eat/you masc eat/he eats
\[Wæklæ\] i fem eat /you fem eat/ she eats
\[Wækli:n\] we eat/you plu eat/they eat
The egyptian arabic word for mouth is bo2/بق
And i wanna its etemology, ive heard claims of it being of romance origin but i feel like those may be dubious tho i do kind of get their reasoning as arabic did use to have a tendency of turning ks in loan words into qs and therefore that would leaf to it becoming bo2 in egyptian arabic but idunno, give me your opinions yall
Please give me objective answers
So my friend is trans and shes in danger of being de-transitianed or to not lengthen the word count her family want to eden knight her, [shes in egypt]
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Also they are kind of trying to kill her
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She has contacted the rainbow railroad but they havent responded do um how can i help her escape to any country that at least has a form of lgbtq+ rights
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[i am in egypt as well so ye that limits options considerably]
So as we all know there are lots of claims about egyptian arabic having been influinced by coptic in regards to syntax and interrogative particle and demonstrative placement
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But is there like any substantial proof for that that doesnt go back to that one old study by wilson B. Bishai where he compared egyptian arabic, msa and coptic but didnt try to put this in the context of other neighboring arabic dialects.
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So are there any true features of coptic that made it into egyptian arabic or is it all just cope
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I tried looking for it on wiktionary and got nothing
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Ive heard some rumours that it may come from coptic
Ⲥⲁ/ⲥⲓ but those are dubious at best
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Soo anyone here got any answers