Does Bauckham’s “divine identity” reading of Philippians 2:9–11 place Jesus within the identity of Israel’s God?
I’ve been reading Richard Bauckham’s work on divine identity Christology recently, and I was curious what people here think about his interpretation of Philippians 2.
From what I understand, Bauckham argues that Second Temple Jewish monotheism wasn’t defined simply by a list of divine attributes. Instead, it was defined by what constituted the unique identity of the God of Israel, especially things like universal sovereignty, heavenly rule, and receiving worship.
In Jesus and the God of Israel (p. 130), he writes:
"Jesus’ participation in or exercise of the divine sovereignty… had to mean his inclusion in the divine identity itself"
In Where Christology Began (p. 60), he says:
"his sharing the divine throne in heaven and inclusion in the unique divine identity of the one God of Israel"
What caught my attention is the connection with Isaiah 45:23. Paul echoes a passage about YHWH and applies that language to Jesus in Philippians 2:9–11.
I also came across Michael C. Magree, who summarizes Bauckham’s position by describing it as:
"a radical Christian step of identification of Jesus with the God of Israel"
(The Interpretation of Kenosis from Origen to Cyril of Alexandria: Dimensions of Self-Emptying in the Reception of Philippians 2:7, p. 29)
I’ve attached photos of the relevant pages so the quotations can be checked in context.
Do you find this reading persuasive, or do you think another scholarly interpretation explains Paul’s use of Isaiah 45:23 better?
Richard Bauckham, Jesus and the God of Israel, p. 130.
Richard Bauckham, Where Christology Began, p. 60.
Michael C. Magree, The Interpretation of Kenosis from Origen to Cyril of Alexandria: Dimensions of Self-Emptying in the Reception of Philippians 2:7 (Oxford University Press), p. 29.