Does origin of the population affect that population's self determination rights?
Something I've been struggling with for a long time. this is not a hypothetical scenario, it happened more time than one can count. One of the most notable examples is Northern Ireland, where England drove out native population and then sponsored English settlers to settle. A few centuries later descendents of those English settlers voted to remain in the UK while the rest of Ireland left.
Basically if a nation uses such actions as genocide, ethnic cleansing, mass displacement of population or anything similar, and then settles this newly depopulated land with it's own people. Let's say those people remain there for several generations then, is it ethically wrong for them to consider that land theirs at that point, including being allowed to decide which country that land should belong to?
On the one hand, everyone who participated in that original attrocity is probably dead, and their descendents have been born and raised on that land.
On the other hand it introduces a pretty huge loophole where you get to keep what you take, no matter what means you used, as long as you can hold on to it long enough.