The Balkans’ coffee culture largely originated from Turkey and Turkey nowadays has the second highest number of Starbucks shops in Europe and its surroundings, second only to the UK. If Starbucks has been so successful in Turkey, why would the same coffee culture work against it in the rest of the Balkans?
Sowie in anderen Teilen Europas gab es auch in Andalusien deutsche Sprachinseln, am nennenswertesten in La Carolina, jedoch werden sie im Gegensatz zu anderen deutschen Gruppen fast nie erwähnt und sie haben sich trotz ihrer eher späten Siedlung im 18. Jahrhundert schon sehr schnell danach an die spanische Identität angepasst. Warum gab es so ein Unterschied zwischen denen und anderer deutscher Gruppen?
Source: http://www.gutenberg-e.org/andrade/intro.html
So before the 17th century, there were virtually no Chinese inhabitants on Taiwan. Then the Dutch East India Company (VOC) arrives and wants to exploit the island for economic gains. Since the indigenous Taiwanese were not cooperative in that regards, they first intended to settle Europeans there instead, but the idea was refused by the VOC’s leadership, stating that it was too expensive. Instead, the invited the Chinese to settle there which is why they eventually became the majority (and it turned out to be bad for the Dutch themselves).
Had the VOC now have been as aggressively interested in short-term profits, Taiwan could have become a white-majority island, which would of course benefit the United States from a cultural standpoint, and even if not, China would most likely not be interested in invading a Taiwan without Chinese inhabitants.
Words like expensive, previous and joke do not exist in French whatsoever but somehow do in English. How and why did they enter the language?
If all of the former Ottoman territories were Turkish-speaking, Turkish would have a similar status to Spanish globally. Whereas now it’s mostly confined to just one country.
Those two just seem too random
Table 1. Jury Rank table
Table 2. Televote Rank table.
The full jury ranking details have finally been released.
I have posted Teleovote rank table before here: https://www.reddit.com/r/eurovision/comments/1tfr7h0/eurovision_2026_televote_rank_table/
But, I decided to include it here again.
These tables show the jury and televote ranking details for the Eurovision 2026 Grand Final. Each row represents a competing country, and each column represents a voting country. The number in each cell shows the rank that the competing country received from that voting country.
A lower number means a better result. For example, 1 means that the country was ranked first by that voting country, while higher numbers mean weaker support.
The colours make the results easier to read. Green shows first place, yellow shows countries ranked in the top 10, and red shows last place.
On the right side, Average shows the average ranking each country received across all voting countries. A lower average means stronger overall performance. Avr. Rank ranks the countries based on that average.
Table 3. Televote-Jury Rank Disagreement
Table 3 shows how much the televote and jury disagreed with each other. The formula is:
(Televote rank - Jury rank)
If the number is positive and shown in blue, it means the televote gave the country a higher numerical rank than the jury. In other words, the televote ranked it worse than the jury did.
If the number is negative and shown in red, it means the televote gave the country a lower numerical rank than the jury. In other words, the televote ranked it better than the jury did.
If the number is zero and shown in green, it means the televote and jury gave the country the same rank.
For instance, the world ‘tecnología’ is not ‘tejnología’, despite the latter being more etymologically correct and Spanish being the only Romance language to have that sound. Why is that?
For instance, the world ‘tecnología’ is not ‘tejnología’, despite the latter being more etymologically correct and Spanish being the only Romance language to have that sound. Why is that?
For instance, the world ‘tecnología’ is not ‘tejnología’, despite the latter being more etymologically correct and Spanish being the only Romance language to have that sound. Why is that?
Why are Ancient Greek words like ‘técnic(o/a) not rendered as ‘téjnic(o/a)’, which would be more etymologically accurate?
Why are Ancient Greek words like ‘técnic(o/a) not rendered as ‘téjnic(o/a)’, which would be more etymologically accurate?
Why are Ancient Greek words like ‘técnic(o/a) not rendered as ‘téjnic(o/a)’, which would be more etymologically accurate?