u/maybeigiveafuck

Teka Adams survived a brutal assault where a woman tied her down and cut open her abdomen with a box cutter to try to steal her baby. Adams managed to escape while holding her stomach together to keep the baby and her own intestines inside. Both miraculously lived. (Thank goodness.)

How was this possible? Any doctors here?

Sorry, just morbidly curious about the medical technicalities but of course very happy about this brave survivor and hope for the best for her and the baby, who she (perfectly) named Miracle.

Sources:

https://www.washingtonpost.com/archive/national/2010/06/15/a-mothers-torment/cd96f272-aeec-4e7a-87d2-39176f1e6640/

https://usnewsmag.com/pregnant-woman-fought-for-her-life-and-her-child/

https://www.msn.com/en-us/news/crime/i-fled-holding-my-own-intestines-after-i-was-cut-open-in-bid-to-steal-my-unborn-baby/ar-AA1T9BBj

just curious, can anyone name ones that can be backed up or are measurable? (i'm not super knowledgeable on K-Pop or fashion, especially trends, so that's why i'm asking)

the biggest easiest example i know of is Lisa (BLACKPINK) essentially kickstarting the whole Labubu craze which is now a billion dollar industry

but who else, with what "evidence"?

(especially since Labubus are not "fashion" fashion but just a fashion accessory at best lol) (and i know about K-idols driving huge EMV numbers, but what about tangibly being trendsetters? what are the most notable examples?)

and is there a good source to learn about this that breaks down idols' real impact on fashion globally?

(photo from GQ India)

No shade, you go girl, just geniunely curious and looking for an explanation from someone who understands how the Korean music industry works.

So Jisoo is reportedly the best-selling female solo artist in South Korea per Circle Charts (Gaon), their Billboard/RIAA equivalent run by the government. Yet she doesn't even have a single album (only EPs), and her entire catalog is <10 tracks.

From The Korea Herald: "As of April (2025), Jisoo is the top-selling female K-pop soloist on the Circle Chart, with cumulative solo album sales exceeding 2 million."

So objectively & statistically, this makes no sense. How did she beat much more established solo artists like BoA & IU, with way longer careers and many more albums & total tracks?

TLDR: As the title says, is this really true? If so, how & why?

More discussion not 100% vital to the question:

Jisoo even beats other BP members (Jennie, Lisa, Rosé), who are far more successful internationally. Not surprising as Jisoo doesn't speak English and doesn't promote abroad, but some who claim to live in Korea say Jennie is actually the most popular and a trend-setter in Korea compared to Jisoo (who is still more loved than the other two). So how come their solo sales don't reflect that?

Is it that FLOWER itself was such a mega hit in SK and sort of a one-off, considering her latest EP Amortage isn't making those numbers?

I also found another source, SoriData, which uses Gaon but also other data, and shows a different ranking. This time, Lee Sun Hee & BoA are above Jisoo at #1-2, while IU is still below her. But they admit that Lee Sun Hee & BoA's numbers may not be 100% accurate (because they are pre-2010/Gaon/Circle) while Jisoo's are fully verifiable.

Disclaimer: not sure how credible they really are, their filters seem to include Jin (BTS) as a female soloist? (lol)

That said, the top 3's numbers are still at 2-3 million, which sounds a bit small. Compare that to the US (per RIAA): the #1 is Rihanna for singles and Taylor Swift for albums.

Rihanna: 188M (singles) + 29M (albums) = total 217 million units.

Taylor Swift: 137.5M (singles) + 110M (albums) = total 247.5 million units.

The US to SK population ratio is over 6:1, but Taylor to Jisoo's sales ratio is about 123:1, which would mean that Amaerican female (solo) artists are more than TWENTY times as successful (commercially) as American ones.

So could it be that Gaon's numbers are a bit off? Or do Koreans just dislike female soloists (lol) yet Jisoo is just so beloved that she surpassed the "veterans" with multiyear careers & 10+ albums, shattering the glass ceiling with only ~6 songs?

Again, no hate, every female artist deserves their flowers, pun intended. But as a non-Korean this just sounds shocking, hard to believe, and definitely an interesting phenomenon if true. Happy to hear all inputs, thank you in advance!

general question that applies to everyone, any family member or friend i have that might face the same question. so wont be including age but feel free if anyone would like to answer by specifying for ex: for eldery x days, children x days. but again it is a general question and case by case will be wildly different so again wont be including any age.

the problem is i used to hear (and i saw this in multiple reddit doctor forums just now) that a full course of antibiotics MUST be finished, which is usually 5-7 days. otherwise you get the antibiotic resistance problem etc. (because what if you feel better by day 3 but you're still actually sick and have the bacteria etc?)

but then when i tried googling i found conflicting results like this:

https://www.scientificamerican.com/article/a-few-days-on-antibiotics-are-often-as-good-as-weeks-research-shows/

https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC6736742/

which say shorter is better, for example even only 2-3 days if you have started feeling better by then.

the "shorter is best" seems to be newer research but i'm not a doctor or researcher so which is the correct one?

tldr: (again, ignoring case by case basis) as a general rule, is 3 days ok or is 5 days the absolute minimum to avoid antibiotic resistance?

i also live in a country where doctors are few and usually not so good so i cannot "just go to your local doctor and do what they say" i want to know what is the most recent scientific consensus on this

thank you in advance

so in reader view all references to footnotes are automatically rendered as such (if there are multiple refs to the same footnote).

the problem is, and maybe i'm a bit too perfectionistic on this, but i think this numbering system is clearly flawed because:

1. it should either keep the marker as simply [1] (uniformly), or

2. for those who prefer denoting each ref in order, then the reader view should automatically detect if a footnote is referred to more than once, and if yes then mark the first reference as [1-1] — instead of just [1] and then having the second reference be [1-1]. (if not then keep it as [1].)

the fact that it is the second reference but marked with "1", meaning the third will be marked "2", thus the whole note will have the marker be off by 1, just really irks me, and yes i know it's silly, but it does.

is there a solution for this, like a plugin that lets you choose between option 1 & 2 above? or is there already a way to change it that i don't know about?

sorry again if this is silly, the false order number is just truly driving me crazy.

many thanks in advance!

TLDR: is there a way to change the (automatic) footnote numbering (in reader view), either to a correct proper order, or to just keep it uniform even if the same footnote has multiple references to it?

This YouTube video by a channel called "Kings and Generals" (not sure how good or credible tbh) titled Ainu - History of Ghost of Yotei DOCUMENTARY makes the claim that there is a "common adage" that:

"The Japanese spirit was built on the Ghost of the Emishi."

But after googling, it's impossible to find other sources that use this saying.

It seems to refer to how samurai culture (which certainly shaped "the Japanese spirit", if there is to be such a thing) originates from the Emishi; due to the success of warfare using horseback archery, as opposed to mainland infantry soldiers modeled after Chinese armies, which made up the Imperial Japanese (Yamato) forces — until encountering and failing to defeat the Emishi.

So is it true that Japanese people commonly acknowledge this, that a large part of their culture is greatly influenced by an entirely different, indigenous people which they themselves colonized and/or assimilated? It seems a bit unlikely given what we know about Japan's institutions & historical revisionism.

TLDR: Is there indeed such a saying? And if so, would actual historians agree it is accurate?