u/AppropriateMood4784

Why is the song "Debí tirar más fotos" and not "Debería tirar más fotos"? As far as I know, the intended meaning corresponds to "I should have taken more pictures" but to me the former seems to mean "I had to take more pictures".

When I start a trip, Google Maps often thinks my car is pointing in the reverse direction from the one I'm actually facing, so the directions it gives me might start "Head towards X Street, then turn left" when X Street is behind me and I obviously ought to be heading towards Y Street, which is right in front of me, and either turning right or going straight (because my destination is somewhere ahead of me). So I drive 5 meters to Y Street, I get no instructions. Maybe I'll go straight, and THEN it will finish its first recomputation (from when I started rolling) and shout "Turn right into Y Street". Then it recomputes again after it figures out that I've already passed Y.

Is there a way to tell Maps that I'm pointing the other way? What if I don't even know which way I'm facing relative to the map?

I'm watching reels by a user by the name of Mamadkairo on Instagram, https://www.instagram.com/mamadkairo/. He has a number of videos in which he and a male friend are in situations that take a romantic, flirty turn. I don't speak Persian. (a) I really can't figure out where these videos fall on the range from meanness and disparagement to innocent, good-willed silliness. (b) As far as I can tell, these guys are in Iran. Given the atmosphere there, I'm curious as to how people in the country take these videos and whether the participants are incurring any risk by posting them.

There's a place I go where Google tells me my destination is on the left and to turn there, but what's on the left is the employee parking lot. The general public needs to drive farther, to the other end of the property, before turning left into the public lot. I didn't use the thumbs up/down option at the end of my last trip, at which point I could have submitted a comment. How do I do it now?

When traveling on foot, it would be great for Google Maps to offer a "least-effort" option, to get the route from A to B over which the elevation changes the least. This would be amazing in places like San Francisco and Seattle.

Coming from North Sydney on a ferry after a few days in NS, I'm trying to plan a car tour around Newfoundland in late September-early October, including an excursion (ferry from Fortune, without the car) to Saint-Pierre and Miquelon for a couple of days. I'm finding it very frustrating!

I'm figuring on arriving in Argentia and leaving via Port aux Basques. A friend advised my to spend two or three days in and around St. John's (including a day, since this is mid-vacation, to do laundry). I'd like to see Mistaken Point, Gros Morne, the Tablelands, and L'Anse aux Meadows. I'd like to see puffins, but I'm reading that they'll be gone by then. (Where do they go? I asked that in a separate post.) The drives are very long and I'm wondering how to break them up with a sight or two along the way, or where to overnight along them. I'm wondering whether snow is going to be a problem. The ferries don't run every day. I'm trying to time things so that wherever I am on a Sunday, sights and services aren't all closed. Will I have cell service along all the main roads?

Any recommendations?

I'm reading that puffins can be seen in Newfoundland from May through mid-September. Where are they the rest of the year?

In Proto: How One Ancient Language Went Global, Laura Spinney states that some linguists are working with the idea that, rather than being the mutual ancestor of Anatolian and all the other IE languages, Proto-Indo-European was a sister language to Anatolian. That reads to me like the joke "The Odyssey wasn't written by Homer but by another man of that name."

It isn't as though archeologists uncovered an actual language that linguists gave the name "Goopy", whereupon linguists studied it and conjectured that it looks like it could be an ancestor of all known IE languages, after which a few came along who conjectured instead that Anatolian didn't descend from Goopy, that it existed alongside of Goopy. The term "Proto-Indo-European" is defined as the designation for whatever language was the common ancestor of Anatolian and the rest of the IE family. So I don't understand this alternative conjecture. As far as makes sense to me, Anatolian existed alongside whatever state PIE had evolved into before any other branching had occurred, and "PIE" is the designation for the mutual parent of that language and Anatolian.

I've been reading findings on the level of heavy metals in protein supplement powders, particularly plant protein but also whey protein. My question is why, when they extract protein from the plant matter or milk, the heavy metals come along for the ride, why they aren't filtered out along with other non-protein matter. I don't know anything about the extraction process, but couldn't, say, chelation be used somewhere along the line?

How widespread is the adoption, at various points in history, of a language's second person plural for use as a polite second person singular? Among the Indo-European languages that have done this (Germanic ones, Romance ones, Slavic ones), was it a separate development in each branch, or is it something that happened before they'd diverged from one another? Or is it a sprachbund thing?

In addition, some if not most of the Turkic languages have had the same development: same questions as for the IE languages, in addition to whether one of Turkic and IE influenced the other at some point. (In contrast to the case of the IE languages, the words for "you" in the Turkic languages don't even seem to change from one language to another: "sen", "siz".) How about other families?

I came across "Söylemek istemezdim, ağzımdan kaçtı." Shouldn't it be "istemedim", without the "z"? Or is it the difference between "I didn't mean to" and "I hadn't meant to"?

How do you translate "the apple I'm eating", "the apple I ate", and "the apple I was eating"? Are they all "yediğim elma"? Are any of them "yiyorduğum elma"? Is there some other way to translate any of the three?

Also, when is "yedik" used with none of the possessive suffixes?

I just learned "etekleri zil çalmak" = "to be overjoyed", literally "his/her skirts ringing bells"? Is this expression used for men or only women, given that the metaphor is based on skirts?

"Salmon" has an "l", even though an "l" was never pronounced in English (and the word originally had spellings like "samoun" and "sammon") and wasn't even pronounced in the French word it was borrowed from, only because some language pedants at some point thought that words should be spelled to reflect their Latin origin (in this case "salmonem"). The same explanation applies to the "b" in "debt" and "doubt", the "s" in "isle", and so forth.

My question is: Why did anyone pay attention to these people? How did publishers and writers, who'd been writing "det" and "dette" and "dout" and "dowt" and "ile" and "yle", even know what these busybodies had to say, let alone react "You know, I'm gonna start spelling the words with those extra letters for no good reason!" Obviously, it isn't that the new spellings excited the masses and trended on social media, or that the pedants made the round of YouTube talk shows and podcasts. Did they launch an enormous PR campaign? Did they write individual letters to every publisher and writer begging them to change their practices? Did they spread the word via town crier? Did they lobby Parliament and get the old spellings forbidden by law? Who funded whatever campaign they waged to make this happen?

As coincidences are common, I know the answer is probably "no", but is any consideration given to the possibility that Proto-Semitic *kanap- and Proto-Turkic *kānat, both meaning "wing", are cognates, or that one is a borrowing from the other?

For months I've been reading about people whose names appear in the Epstein files along with the number of occurrences of each. How is it in all that time that no one has found any case where what's being said about that person is evidence of a crime? I mean, for all the supposed mentions of Donald Trump or Bill Clinton, are there no verbs or nouns or prepositions next to any occurrence of those names that expose a criminal act on their part? I'm tired of seeing just names and the innuendo associated with that.

When I read about 16-hour intermittent fasts, isn't that just another way of saying having late breakfast and early dinner? Breakfast at 9, lunch at 1, dinner at 5, then it's 16 hours till breakfast the next day? Or does what it involves go beyond its literal meaning?

Why are the CEFR language competency levels A1, A2, B1, B2, C1, C2? Why aren't they just A, B, C, D, E, F? It isn't clear to me, for example, that A2 has any more of a relationship to A1 than it has to B1, that the levels should be grouped in pairs.