Genetic alterations as "errors", "copying mistakes" or "misreadings" of a sequence

An error can occur only when there is an established rule or conscious intention that an acting subject failed to follow. A clerk makes an error because there is a standard ledger to obey. In physical reality, a molecule undergoes a chemical rearrangement governed entirely by the physical conditions present at that instant. Nature possesses no intention, no standard of correctness, and no rule that it was trying to achieve. Without a prior goal, there is no failure. Designating a physical alteration as an "error" is a grammatical projection of human standards of success onto an indifferent physical change

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u/feihm — 12 days ago

The two biologists problem

Two biologists share a lab. Call them A and B.

They use the same models. They read the same papers. They accept the same fossils, the same stratigraphy, the same genomic data, the same nested hierarchies, the same everything you can point to and measure.

They never disagree on a single observation.

Not once.

But they disagree about what the models are.

> A: Humans and apes share a common ancestor. That's the fact.

> B: The pattern is the fact. The common ancestor is a postulate. A useful fiction.

> A: But the model predicts the pattern. If it weren't true, why would it work so well?

> B: You've just said: predictive success implies truth. I'd say: predictive success implies predictive success. That's the whole inference. The rest is something you added.

> A: That's a tautology.

> B: It is. And it's the honest version of your argument.


A third colleague, C, overhears. C is a realist and has heard this before.

> C: You're ignoring the best explanation. Common ancestry doesn't just predict the nested hierarchies, the shared ERVs, the biogeography. It explains them. Why they're nested. Why the ERVs sit at the same loci. The instrumentalist reading explains nothing. It just says "the pattern is the pattern." Which is useless.

> B: You've given me an explanation that postulates an unobservable cause. Fine. But notice what you did: you compared two explanations, found one more satisfying, and concluded it was true. That last step is not in the comparison.

> C: So you think it's a coincidence that the model works?

> B: I think "coincidence" is another word you've added. The model works. That's the datum. Whether it works because it corresponds to a mind-independent past, or because it's a well-adapted predictive instrument, or because a creator made it work. Those are three different stories. They all predict the same fossils.


> A: But we predicted Tiktaalik. We said: if common ancestry is true, there should be a transitional form in strata of this age with these features. Then we found it. That's a prediction that came true.

> B: Agreed. And it's a beautiful result. But notice: you used the model as a heuristic. It told you where to dig. That's real. That's what models are for. But the fact that a heuristic leads you to a fossil does not make the heuristic true. It makes it fruitful.

> A: That's a dodge.

> B: It's not. There's a difference between "this model reliably generates discoveries" and "this model is the mind-independent history of life." The first is a scientific claim. The second is a metaphysical one.


> C: So you'd say the historical narrative is a fairy tale?

> B: No. I'd say it's a model. I'd say it's the best predictive model we have, and I'd defend it against anyone who says otherwise. What I won't do is say that a successful model is the past. I don't have access to the past. I have present traces. The narrative is what I do with the traces.

> C: But you live as if it's true.

> B: Of course I do. I also live as if the sun rises. That doesn't mean the sun rises. It means "sunrise" is a useful way of talking about a rotating Earth. Useful and true are not the same word.


They go to a conference. A colleague asks them both the same question: "Do you accept common ancestry?"

> A: Yes. It's the true history of life.

> B: Yes. It's the best predictive model we have.

The colleague asks. "Those are different answers."

> A: Are they? We agree on every fossil, every gene, every prediction, every paper.

> B: We agree on the science. We disagree on the story we tell about the science. And here's the thing: if you deleted the word "true" from every biology paper ever written, not a single prediction would change. Not one decimal point. Not one experiment. That should tell you something about what work the word is doing.


So here's the problem.

Two biologists can work side by side, use the same equations, predict the same findings, and never disagree on a single observation; while disagreeing completely on whether the historical narrative is true.

If they can do that, then "the narrative is true" is not a scientific finding. It's not testable. It's not falsifiable. It changes nothing empirical.

This doesn't mean the narrative is false. Maybe it is true. Biologist B isn't denying that. B is denying that A discovered it. You can't discover something that no observation could ever confirm or disconfirm.

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u/feihm — 15 days ago

The study of the past development of living forms is an act of constructing a connected account

What does an investigator into evolution actually holds in their hands?

The investigator possesses only objects that exist in the present moment:

  1. A bone preserved in rock.
  2. The shape of a living creature standing before them.
  3. The measurable dimensions of a bodily limb.

All these items are appearances belonging strictly to the present time. They are still, isolated facts. None of them moves; none of them speaks; none of them displays its own past.

Has any human being ever witnessed the gradual change of one living form into another over thousands of years?

The answer is necessarily no.

A past event cannot be seen, touched, or weighed. The actual transitions from an earlier shape to a later shape are permanently absent from human sensibility. Therefore, the physical change itself is is a period of time entirely empty of human witnesses rather than an observed fact.

Because the human mind cannot accept disconnected facts, the understanding immediately performs an act of connection.

It observes a shape in a deeper layer of rock.

It observes a slightly different shape in a higher layer of rock.

It places both shapes along the order of time, one after the other.

To explain why the first shape is followed by the second, the investigator must introduce prior conditions: changes in temperature, shortages of food, or perils that caused certain bodies to perish whilst others endured.

None of these ancient conditions is present to be examined. Thus they are but thoughts formed by the understanding to link two separated appearances together under the rule of cause and effect.

Now, what is an account or a narrative actually is?

In its purest logical form, an account is the arrangement of separate, stationary points into a continuous line of causes, such that the mind can move from the earlier point to the later point without contradiction.

The ground contains only scattered stones and bones. The continuous line exists entirely within the human mind, which connects the separate points through thought.

Therefore, the following deduction follows:

  1. Observation is confined strictly to present appearances in space and time.
  2. The transitions that altered living bodies in past ages can never be an object of observation.
  3. Therefore, the description of how these bodies came to be is an arrangement supplied by human thought rather than a record of witnessed events.

The investigator thus takes still remains and builds an orderly sequence of causes to make them intelligible. The plausibility of the explanation comes from the logical coherence with which the human understanding links its own concepts together rather than from observing the past.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

you cannot observe the observer without committing an inescapable error of circular logic

In every possible act of knowledge, there must be two distinct terms:

First, there is the subject. This is the observer; the simple, thinking self that unifies sensations, connects ideas, and forms judgements.

Second, there is the object. This is the thing observed; that which is placed before the observer to be examined.

The basic rule of all observation is that the subject directs its attention toward an object. The subject is the active thinker; the object is that which is thought about.

What does it mean to observe the observer itself?

The subject becomes its own object.

When you turn your attention inward to catch this observer, what do you actually encounter?

You encounter a specific thought, a memory, an emotion, or a desire. You notice that this thought arises, remains for a brief duration, and is replaced by another thought.

Because these thoughts occur one after another, they occur in time.

Therefore, that which you have observed is not the pure observer at all. It is merely an internal appearance; a thought placed before you in time, exactly as an external item is placed before you in space.

The moment a thought or a feeling is observed, it has been made into an object.

Because it is an object, it requires an observer to observe it.

If you now attempt to turn your attention upon that subject, you immediately convert it into a second object. And the moment it becomes an object, you must ask once more: what is the subject that is now looking at this second object?

You can continue this step without end. At every attempt, you do not capture the observer; you merely manufacture a new object of thought, whilst the true subject steps back to perform the observing.

The circularity is absolute and complete.

You can know yourself as an appearance in time; you can know what you think, what you remember, and what you feel.

But, the pure observer—the simple subject that must accompany every single thought you ever have—can never be observed as a thing. It is that which makes all seeing possible, and that which is the necessary condition for seeing can never be placed before itself to be seen.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

Physicalism: to exist is simply to produce an impression upon our senses

First, consider what happens when something touches your senses.

Whether you look at a stone with your own sight, or whether you place that stone upon an instrument such as a balance or beneath a glass lens, the result is the same: an impression is made upon you, the observer.

Second, consider how that impression is received.

One cannot perceive an object unless it has a place, an outline, and a distance from other things. That is what we call space.

One also cannot perceive any change or movement unless one moment follows another. That is what we call time.

The physicalist says:

> If a thing cannot produce an impression within space and time, it does not exist.

In plain terms, the object as it appears to our senses is all that exists.

Now, let us test whether this statement is logically sound.

When an impression is made upon your senses, you possess an appearance of the thing. You know its shape, its weight, and its resistance.

These qualities describe how the thing affects you. They do not describe what the thing is entirely on its own, apart from your capacity to feel it.

Further, an impression cannot create itself. If your senses are affected, there must be something that does the affecting. To speak of an impression whilst denying the presence of that which causes it is a direct contradiction.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

The Removal of the Observer and Direct Realism

For any possible observation, 3 elements are necessary: (1) The Thing in Itself (T) (2) The Observer (O) (3) The Appearance (A).

T: That which exists independently of whether anyone observes it. O: The conscious subject who receives impressions and thinks about them. A: The object as it presents itself to the observer.

The observer (O) does not receive impressions in an empty, formless manner because the observer possesses two universal forms of sensibility: (1) Space (𝒮) (2) Time (𝒯)

𝒮: The rule by which items are ordered outside of, and next to, one another. 𝒯: The rule by which items are ordered one after another, in succession.

Space and time, therefore, belong entirely to the constitution of the observer.

An appearance (A) is a relation.

For an appearance to occur, the thing in itself must affect the observer, and the observer must arrange that impression within space and time. We express this dependency as a function:

A = f(T, O)

Because all shapes, boundaries, durations, and physical qualities require space (𝒮) and time (𝒯), the appearance exists only so long as the observer is present to provide those forms:

A ⇒ O

The thing in itself (T) may remain, but the appearance (A) ceases to be.

Direct realism is the claim that our senses grasp the thing in itself directly, exactly as it exists apart from us. In logical notation, direct realism asserts an identity:

A ≡ T

One can prove that this identity is a formal contradiction through three simple steps:

Premise 1: The appearance (A) possesses spatial extension and temporal change.

A ⇒ (𝒮 ∧ 𝒯)

• Premise 2: Space and time belong solely to the observer (O). If there is no observer, there is neither space nor time.

(𝒮 ∧ 𝒯) ⇒ O

• Premise 3: By definition, the thing in itself (T) exists independently of the observer.

T ⇒ ¬O

One can then evaluate the direct realist's assertion under the condition that no observer is present (O = ∅):

If O = ∅, then (𝒮 ∧ 𝒯) = ∅, hence A = ∅.

But T remains non‑empty.

Therefore A ≠ T.

Therefore, the assertion that A ≡ T violates the law of identity.

The second error occurs when a person describes an empirical fact, and then proceeds as if the observer had contributed nothing to that fact.

Let an observed physical quality (such as colour, hardness, size, or motion) be denoted by p. Every physical quality that we can ever measure or speak about is an element of the appearance:

p ∈ A

Since A = f(T, O), every statement asserting that an object possesses quality p is strictly a two‑place relation between the thing and the observer:

p(T, O)

The second error consists of an invalid elimination. The speaker drops the second term (O) from the relation, whilst retaining the quality (p) that depends entirely upon that term:

p(T, O) ⇒ p(T)  (illicit elimination)

As can be seen, this constitues a formal fallacy of relation.

In pure logic, a two‑place relation between two distinct entities cannot be transformed into an intrinsic, one‑place property of only one of those entities:

p(T, O) ⊭ p(T)

To say, for example:

> The stone is smooth and round when no observer exists

...is to assert:

p(T, ∅)

This statement is nothing. “Smooth” is the sensible impression of touch; “round” is an arrangement in space. Both belong to O. When O is removed, the relation dissolves.

Thus, both errors arise from the same root: a failure of the human understanding to distinguish between that which belongs to the object, and that which the mind itself supplies in order to perceive it.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

the phrase "cannot do otherwise" reduces to an empty tautology

An action must be understood in relation to time. We must distinguish between two moments: (1) Let t₀ represent the moment of deliberation, before an action is chosen. (2) Let t₁ represent the moment after the action has taken place.

At time t₁, an action has already occurred. Let us designate this completed action as A.

There are now two distinct questions one can ask: (1) The Backward‑Looking Question (at t₁): Did action A occur at t₁, rather than not occur? (2) The Forward‑Looking Question (at t₀): Did the agent possess the capacity to bring about an action other than A?

Now consider this thought experiment:

> If we return to time t₀, with every physical and mental condition held strictly identical, the agent cannot do otherwise than action A.

Let us translate this statement into formal symbolic logic.

Let the state of the world at t₀ be a set of conditions, S₀.

Let the completed historical record from t₀ to t₁ be an ordered pair: (S₀, A), where A is the action that was observed.

Now we posit a second sequence, which we shall call ℋ′.

By the established explicit rule, this second sequence must begin with the exact same initial state: S₀.

Further, lets require that every factor that determined the original outcome is preserved without the slightest alteration.

Because we define the second timeline as entirely identical to the first, ww have defined the two sequences as the same set: ℋ′ = ℋ

Now, if one inspects ℋ′ at time t₁ and one can declare:

> Behold: the action is A, and it cannot be anything other than A!

In mathematical terms, this can be written: A = A

As we can recognise, this is the law of identity. It states that a thing is identical to itself.

In formal propositional logic, this takes the form: P ⇒ P

A proposition of the form P ⇒ P is true under all possible interpretations. It is a tautology. It asserts only that what has happened, has happened.

Its easy to see why one can believe they have proven that the agent “cannot do otherwise”. Which is due to an error of logical necessity.

Consider these two distinct propositions: (1) Proposition 1 (Logical Necessity of the Past): □(A → A)

> It is necessarily true that if action A occurred, then action A occurred.

This is an analytic truth. It is a tautology. It is impossible for an event to have happened and not have happened at the same time in the same respect. (2) Proposition 2 (Causal Necessity of the Will):

> Because action A occurred, action A was necessary, and the agent had no capacity to produce any other outcome.

This is a synthetic claim. It does not follow from formal logic.

So the tautology relies on Proposition 1 to assert Proposition 2; that point to the completed historical record, note that A cannot be non‑A after the fact, and conclude that the agent at t₀ was bound by an unbreakable physical constraint. Which is an invalid leap in logic. One cannot deduce a prospective law of physical constraint from a retrospective logical identity.

So when one is presented this tautological thought experiment, one can ask:

> When you say the agent cannot do otherwise, are you asserting that the past is identical to the past?

Such is an answer that we would get:

> I am saying that if you return to that exact moment, the exact same event must follow.

Then we can point out:

> You have defined the return to that moment as an exact repetition of the historical record. You have posited that sequence B is identical to sequence A. You then conclude that sequence B contains the same action as sequence A. That is simply stating that A = A.

The conclusion that we get here is:

> A statement of the form A = A is a tautology. It proves only that an event cannot contradict itself once it has occurred. It does not prove that before the event occurred, an alternative was impossible.

With this established, we're left with only two choices: (1) either we're merely stating the trivial identity that the past is the past (2) or, must provide an independent, forward‑looking proof of necessity that does not rely on rewinding a completed timeline.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

Neither determinism nor free will is falsifiable

Many people believe determinism is a statement about physical facts that we discover by looking at nature.

It is not.

It is a rule that our own understanding brings to experience in order to make it intelligible. Whenever you see an event happen in time, your mind cannot understand it as a real event unless it links that event to an earlier cause. Time moves in one direction: from the past to the present. You cannot experience an event without placing it into this sequence. Suppose you witness a movement in the physical world, and you search for its cause but find nothing. Do you conclude that determinism has been disproved?

Absolutely not.

You conclude instead that the cause is hidden from you, and that your inquiry must continue.

Because you will never allow an unexplained event to count as proof that causality does not exist, you cannot falsify determinism. Causality in this case is the fundamental rule by which your mind organises sensible experience.

Freewill is equally unfalsifiable.

Can an observer look into the world of sensible objects and find proof that free will does not exist?

No.

Whenever an observer watches another human being act, that action takes place in space and in time. Because the action takes place in time, the observer's mind immediately applies the rule of cause and effect. The observer explains the action by pointing to prior motives, upbringing, character, and bodily conditions. The completed physical action will always appear fully caused when viewed from the outside. But observing that an action follows physical conditions does not prove that the inner will of the person was not free at the moment the choice was made. The inner will belongs to the domain of the acting subject. It does not belong to the world of visible, physical objects.

Because the senses can only ever register physical appearances, they can never observe the presence or absence of the unconditioned will. Therefore, no physical experiment can ever refute the existence of freedom.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

Having hard time with neuroscience

There's something that has been bothering me for these past days regarding the simulation theory. I find that I'm utterly incapable of articulating it. I know intuitively what is it, but i just lack the proper vocabulary (or is it a limitation of language itself?) to say it in a coherent fashion. But i decided to approach it differently. To trace step by step the process of our own experience via facts from neuroscience.

step 1: anatomy of the brain

I find myself asking this question:

> What is the brain encased in?

The answer is obviously: the skull.

Now we ask:

> Does the brain have any direct physical contact with the outside world?

The answer is: no. It is sealed inside the skull, floating in cerebrospinal fluid, protected by membranes. It is completely dark inside the skull. There is no light in there. There are no sound waves in there. There is no physical tree in there.

I find myself wholeheartedly agreeing with this. This is not controversial.

step 2: what the brain receives

Now we ask:

> What enters the brain from the sensory organs?

The simple answer is: Electrical impulses. Action potentials. Neurochemical signals.

I confirm within literature if that is all?

The answer is: Yes. The eyes convert light into electrical signals. The ears convert air pressure waves into electrical signals. The skin converts pressure and temperature into electrical signals. Everything is transduced into electrochemical signals. The brain only ever receives these signals.

I have to agree with this as well. This is neuroscience 101.

step3: the glitch

Now i imagine myself hold up an object. A coffee cup. A tree outside the window. An apple. It does not matter what it is.

Now we ask:

> What are you experiencing right now?

Since I'm holding a cup of coffee as i was typing this I say: A coffee cup.

Now we ask:

> Let's review the chain. The cup reflects light. The light enters your eye. Your retina transduces the light into electrical impulses. Those impulses travel along the optic nerve into your brain. Your brain is sealed in a dark, silent skull. All it receives are electrical impulses. Now, tell me: where is the coffee cup in this sequence?

Well obviously I point to the cup in my hand. Its right there.

Now we ask:

> No. That is where the light is coming from. But you have already agreed that your brain never receives light. It only receives electrical impulses. And you have agreed that an electrical impulse is not a coffee cup. So I ask you again: where is the coffee cup you are experiencing?

Its true. I agreed that my brain only evee receive electrical impulses. And an electrical impulse doesn't contain within itself a tiny 3D image of a cup of coffee. So the honest answer is: The coffee cup I'm experiencing is not in the physical world. It is not in the light. It is not in the electrical impulses. It is being generated by my brain. The physical object is outside. The experienced object is inside. But inside the skull, there is no miniature coffee cup. There is just tissue and electricity.

step: The paradox

Now we ask:

> You agreed that the brain receives only electrical impulses. You agreed that an electrical impulse has no color, no shape, no weight. It is just an electrochemical event. So where does the color of the cup come from? Where does the shape come from? Where does the solidity come from?

I'm forced to answer along the lines of: The brain processes the signals.

Now we ask:

> Where does the processing happen?

I answer: In the visual cortex.

Now we ask:

> And what is the visual cortex made of?

I hesitate a bit there, but I answer anyway: Neurons.

Now we ask:

> Do neurons contain coffee cups? Do they contain colors? Do they contain the three-dimensional space you are seeing?

My answer is: No... but the brain somehow creates it.

Somehow...

step 5: the impossibility of "somehow"

I find that I've just admitted something monumental. I have admitted that the world I experience—with its colors, shapes, distances, and solidity—does not exist outside my own skull in the form i experience it.

I have admitted that my entire visual reality is a construction. A simulation. A rendering.

I have admitted that the "physical world" i thought i was seeing is actually an internal model built from electrical impulses.

I must push back a bit and say: But that's just how the brain works.

Now we ask:

> I'm not asking how. I'm asking where. Where is the object you are looking at? Because you have now agreed it is not in the world, not in the light, and not in the electrical impulses. It is in your brain. But there is no cup in your brain. So what is it that you are actually seeing?

step 6: finale

I ask myself: could it be this is mere semantics? Or linguistic wordplay? The cup is out there. The brain represents it.

Now we ask:

> If the only world you have ever seen is the representation, what makes you so certain the representation resembles the thing outside? You have never seen the outside. You have only ever seen the representation. So how do you know the cup exists at all beyond the representation?

My intuition tells me that somehow the light causes the representation.

Now we ask:

> But the light is also a representation. You have never seen light. You have seen the brain's rendering of what you call light. Every single thing you can name, measure, or imagine is inside the rendering. So where is the outside?

I'm lost for words.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

What's the merit of the simulation theory?

If we set aside fictional tales, the fundamental claim of this idea is simply that the reality we observe is an appearance formed under strict rules, rather than a collection of objects existing entirely on their own. To test whether this claim holds true, we must narrow our inquiry to the simplest act of human observation.

To see how our awareness actually works, we need only separate what our senses receive from how our thought arranges it. Whenever you observe any physical thing, you notice that it has a shape, a size, and a place beside other things. Although it is easy to assume that shape and position belong to the object in total darkness, space itself cannot be gathered through the senses.

Because you can neither touch empty space nor weigh a distance in your hand, space is not an object lying out in nature, but the mind's own universal way of ordering outer sights. In the very same manner, whenever you notice one event following another, your mind places those moments in a fixed sequence through the condition of time.

From this arrangement in space and time, a necessary deduction follows regarding the nature of every physical event. Because every physical thing must appear to us within space and time, no shape, motion, or distance can exist in that manner without an observing mind. When your senses meet an object, they give you only separate feelings of sight, touch, and warmth. In order for these scattered feelings to become a single, dependable thing, the human understanding must unite them according to universal rules.

Whenever you observe a stone fall or water turn to steam, your mind insists that the change must follow an earlier event according to the rule of cause and effect. Because mere seeing can never show that a future event must happen, the lawful order of nature is something our understanding brings to our experience.

As a direct consequence of these mental conditions, the true meaning of what people call a simulation becomes clear. If someone insists that an outside inventor built a mechanical device to fool us, that person makes an empty claim that cannot be examined.

If, however, you understand a simulation to mean that the experienced world is shaped and governed by the internal rules of the observer, then the proposition is proven by every observation we make.

Whilst one can reject the story of an invisible machine, they cannot deny that we are forever confined to appearances formed by our own understanding.

Under this proper definition, the physical universe is not an independent reality that we inspect from the outside, but an orderly system of appearances constructed through the necessary rules of human thought.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

Still struggling to understand "randomness" as an objective property of [X], independent of an observer's judgement

I decided to trace a simple even—the flipping of a coin —to find out exactly at what point does randomness come in.

step 1: The physical interaction

A coin is launched into the air. It rotates, it travels, it strikes a surface, it settles. If we want, we can agree that this is all just physical matter in motion. No mind is required for the coin to spin and land. That interaction happens.

Now we ask:

> At what point during this physical interaction did you receive a signal that said 'random'?

step 2: The instrument

The eye is an instrument. The retina receives photons reflected off the coin. The retina converts those photons into electrical signals. That is a physical process.

Now we ask:

> Did the retina detect randomness? Or did it detect light?

The answer is: light. The retina does not have a "randomness receptor." It just absorbs photons. So whatever randomness is, it hasn't arrived yet.

step 3: The output

The optic nerve sends signals to the brain. The brain constructs an image: the coin shows heads. That is the perception. It is a discrete, utterly clear output. Not blurry, not ambiguous. Just: heads.

Now we ask:

> When you saw the coin showing heads, did you experience randomness? Or did you experience 'heads'?

The answer is: heads. Just heads. The perception itself is not random. It is exactly what it is. Every single flip of the coin yields a perfectly clear perception, every single time.

But we never once seen a "random" perception. We have only ever seen heads, tails, heads, tails. Perfectly clear. Perfectly distinct.

step 4: The sequence

Now we flip the coin four times. We receive:

Heads. Tails. Tails. Heads.

Now we ask:

> What did you actually receive through your senses? Did you receive 'randomness' as a fifth thing, alongside H, T, T, H? Or did you only receive four separate, clear perceptions?

I would have to admit that I've have only ever received four clear perceptions. Nothing more.

step 5: the mind

But then the mind does something. It does not merely perceive. It asks a question:

> Is there a rule? A pattern? A shorter description that predicts the next outcome?

The mind tries to compress the sequence. H-T-T-H. Can it be described by a shorter rule? No. The mind cannot find a rule that generates the sequence without simply listing the sequence itself.

So the mind concludes:

> I cannot predict this. It appears patternless. I will call it random.

Now we ask:

> Where did that conclusion come from? Did the world give you the word 'random'? Or did you manufacture that verdict because your mind failed to find a pattern?

I'm forced to admit: the verdict came from my mind.

The world gave tails. The mind gave "random."

step 6: Apply the same logic to any sequence whatsoever

Consider this perfectly ordered sequence:

H, H, H, H, H, H

I would say:

> That's not random. Maybe the coin is rigged.

Now we ask:

> Why?

Because this sequence is compressible. The rule "always heads" is shorter than the sequence itself. The mind finds the pattern instantly and says: not random.

But the world delivered six separate perceptions, each one clear. It did not deliver the words "ordered" or "disordered." In both cases, whether the sequence was H-T-T-H or H-H-H-H, the world only delivered discrete outputs. The mind then ran a compression test. If it found a pattern, it said "ordered." If it found no pattern, it said "random."

So I'm forced to conclude:

> "Random" is not a property of any single output. It is the name I give to my own failure to compress a sequence.

step 7: circularity

The chain is:

physical interaction → instrument → output → perception → mind → model

The coin flip is a physical interaction. The eye is an instrument. The brain receives signals. The mind perceives heads. The mind then assembles a sequence, applies a compression test, and produces a verdict: "random."

Now we ask:

> At any point in that chain, did you step outside the chain? Did you touch the physical interaction directly? Did you perceive the coin flip without an eye, without a retina, without neural signals? Or were you at every moment inside the chain?

I'm forced to admit: inside the chain. Every single time.

And I cannot reject this conclusion.

The world delivered clear, discrete, perfectly unambiguous outputs.

The mind tried to find a rule connecting them.

The mind failed.

The mind called the failure "random."

That is what randomness is, from the only standpoint any of us will ever have.

But if one asks:

> But maybe there is a pattern, and I just don't see it

Because "there is a pattern I don't see" and "there is no pattern" produce exactly the same experience through the chain. The mind still fails to find the pattern. It still says "random." The only difference is a metaphysical speculation about what lies beyond the chain. And no one has access to that.

So it seems randomness is not "out there." I have never once received randomness through my senses. I have only ever received heads and tails. The randomness was manufactured by my own mind, at the last step of the chain, when my pattern-finding failed.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

What is the logic behind what it means when we say "X is random occurrence"

When we state that an occurrence is random, we appear to assert that an event has taken place without any guiding rule or prior cause. Yet, if we examine how human thought actually makes sense of any change in the world, we discover that an occurrence entirely without a cause cannot be understood at all.

Because every change that we observe takes place in time, our understanding must always connect what happens now to an earlier state from which it followed by a rule. If an occurrence truly arrived from nothing, possessing no connection whatsoever to a preceding state, it would break the unbroken order of time itself. Therefore, a genuine gap in the chain of cause and effect is impossible within the world of our experience, for the human mind cannot even form a coherent thought about an occurrence that obeys no rule.

Since an uncaused event cannot exist within our experience, the word "random" cannot describe a real absence of cause in the event itself. What the word actually describes, when we strip away the confusion of our language, is the limitation of our own current knowledge. When we observe an event whose full chain of causes is hidden from our view, or whose initial conditions are far too numerous for our thoughts to track, we assign the label of randomness to our own uncertainty.

From this deduction, it follows that when a person says "X is a random occurrence", they are not revealing an objective property belonging to X itself. But rather are merely reporting that their own understanding has not yet grasped the rule that connects X to its prior conditions. Whilst nature remains strictly lawful and complete in every single change, the human observer often sees only isolated pieces of that larger sequence.

Therefore, randomness is neither a power in nature nor a gap in physical necessity, but a simple statement of what our knowledge still lacks.

So the argument I'm making here is in regards to the distinction between our ignorance of causes vs an actual absence of causes.

Some hold the view that "randomness" doesn't describe our ignorance. But the property of "X" itself independent of any observer. I'm utterly incapable of understanding this notion. I've thought of it for a long time. Its senseless to me. I believe that language plays role on the reitification of randomness.

Because the grammatical structure of our ordinary speech routinely attaches descriptive words to physical things, we naturally assume that every word following the verb "is" refers to an actual quality of the object itself. When a person observes that a stone is heavy or that an apple is round, the statement connects a real property to the thing we perceive through our senses. In consequence of this habitual pattern of talking, whenever we speak the sentence "X is random", our grammar behaves as though the word "random" were identical in kind to words like "heavy" or "round".

From this linguistic habit, a serious mistake in our reasoning immediately follows. Whilst a sensible property such as weight or shape belongs to how an object appears to us in space, the word "random" does not name anything that our senses can actually detect. If we examine our experience with care, our sight and touch reveal only physical states changing across time according to regular sequences. We never see, touch, or measure a quality called chance, because chance has neither spatial shape nor physical presence.

Having recognised that randomness is wholly absent from our sensible observations, we must deduce what the word actually designates. Whenever an event takes place without our knowing the prior conditions that brought it about, our understanding encounters a limit in its own knowledge. If the mind cannot find the necessary rule that links this present change to an earlier state, it simply experiences its own inability to anticipate what comes next. The word "random" therefore expresses nothing more than an absence within human awareness, marking the boundary where our insight happens to stop.

So because our speech easily places the word "random" into the predicate of the sentence, the mind is led to project its own internal limit outwards onto the physical event. An inability to explain an occurrence is thus turned, through the unexamined momentum of everyday grammar, into an active property that the event supposedly possesses on its own.

It follows, therefore, that this mistake does not arise from any genuine discovery in nature, but from the power of language to make an empty concept look like a physical reality. When we discipline our terms with precision, we see that nature proceeds through unbroken, lawful change, whilst our language has merely given the appearance of an objective property to our own lack of knowledge.

Therefore the phrase:

> X is random

... actually translates to:

> I do not know the cause of X

Perhaps there's some intuition that I'm missing that some would allow me to finally grasp this notion.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

"I don't think judgements require that I could have done otherwise" — The anti-free-will position in one sentence

The purpose of this post is just to trace this person's argument step by step, observing exactly how he uses his own reason to prove that his reason does not exist.

> I think all of my actions are the result of previous causes. A child can understand that, I imagine.

He begins by saying:

> I think.

To think is to actively judge what is true. Yet, in the very same breath, he claims that all his actions—which must include the act of typing this sentence—are merely the result of blind forces pushing him forward. If one posits that blind forces causes them to speak, then their words are thoughtless happenings. So this one completely leaves the realm of comprehensibility. Im genuinely not sure what to make of this.

> Cars, planes, computers, apples falling from trees, rocks, planets... pretty much everything I can see works this way. Why would it be delusional to assume my brain also works that way?

He looks out at the world and sees objects that do not think. A rock and a falling apple merely move when pushed. He then looks at himself and decides he is exactly the same as the rock...

Friends...is this the actions of a sane person? Remove your proverbial philosophical "hats" and look at it from rational standpoint.

A rock never stops to ask:

> Why would it be delusional?

A rock does not observe other objects and form rules about them. The delusion lies precisely here: he uses his own power of reason to group objects together and ask logical questions, and then he pretends this active reasoning is identical to the blind tumbling of a stone.

> I agree that I'm reading. I agree that I'm figuring out if I think what's written is true. I agree that I'm weighing what to say in response, deliberating what words to type...

I ask again, do you think this person is sane? Assume you're a layperson reading what he says.

So he admits the truth of his own experience.

He concedes that he does not merely roll down a hill like an apple. He figures things out. He weighs the truth. He deliberates. He lists the very deeds of a free and active mind, yet he remains completely blind to the fact that a forced physical object can never 'figure out' anything.

> Rocks do not deliberate. Did you think I meant brains and rocks are the same in every single way?

What?

Now we concedes a rock cannot deliberate. Yet, he still insists that both he and the rock are governed by the exact same blind necessity. This is a complete contradiction. If his mind is entirely forced by blind forces in the exact same way a rock is forced by gravity, then he cannot deliberate any more than the rock can.

> I don't think judgments require that I could have done otherwise.

A judgement is the act of accepting a truth and rejecting a falsehood. If you cannot do otherwise, you have no power to reject what is false. You simply absorb whatever is pushed into your head.

> This is a silly request. You can't fulfill it anymore than I can... I would point to the exact same thing and say they are examples of no free will... we would be at a stalemate, right?

So the context here is that i asked him to provide even a single, plain observation from his own daily life to prove his claim.

He admits he cannot do it.

He concedes that he looks at the exact same daily choices of a free mind, but he simply pastes the label 'unfree' over them. His beliefs are that of a delusional person and exists only as an empty theory, completely divorced from human reality.

This is the true mind of an anti-freewiller.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

If you believe we lack free will, what power do you actually wish you had?

Let us put aside all technical terms. Forget words like determinism, compatibilism, and moral desert. Speak in plain words that anyone on the street and a 5yo can understand.

When you say human beings do not have free will, what exactly do you feel is missing in your life? What is the actual thing you believe you are lacking?

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

How do you mentally visualise "stored potential energy"? Is it a literal physical reality, or an accounting tool?

When we teach physics, we use phrases like:

> this domino/weight has stored potential energy.

But if you dissect the object, there is obviously no physical "energy substance" sitting inside the material (or is there?)

Textbook mathematical definition:

> energy is a scalar quantity that is conserved over time due to time-translation symmetry (Noether’s theorem), and gravitational potential energy is a property of the configuration of a system, not a fluid inside an object.

But that is not what I'm asking.

My question is about your actual mental model when working:

  1. When you solve problems or think about physical systems, do you picture "potential energy" as something with an objective physical existence (e.g., literally stored within the spatial configuration or field), or do you view it strictly as a useful human bookkeeping system / mathematical convention?
  2. Does your perspective change as you move from introductory classical mechanics (balls rolling down ramps) to field theories and general relativity (where energy density actually curves spacetime)?

Basically are you of the view:

> Physics is an invented accounting system; a mathematical language designed solely to track, balance, and predict observations. Concepts like "energy" "force" and "potential" are bookkeeping metrics we defined and are not physical substances waiting to be discovered.

Or

> Physics is an objective discovery of reality. It describes the literal, underlying mechanics of nature. Mathematical descriptions like "stored potential energy" correspond to genuine physical states and properties that physically exist in the universe independent of our models.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

At what point do we recognise that philosophy has become a linguistic word play?

I saw a post (https://www.reddit.com/r/Pessimism/s/D1ykAtPFfM) and it occurred to me to inquire if—how do I put it... perhaps there are those on this sub or in philosophy in general who have the same intuition that i do or I'm simply alone.

It seems to me that philosophy becomes mere word play at the precise moment we take words meant for ordinary experience and apply them where no experience is possible.

When we stay within the world we can see and touch, our words have work to do. But when we push words beyond that boundary, our grammar continues to make sentences even though our thoughts have lost all footing.

And that post demonstrates this in four main ways:

  1. OOP speaks of a "perpetual void" that "outlasts time", "consumes everything", and "allows this to happen". This is almost or very much indistinguishable from poetry because i think we can notice what has happened to language here.

The word void simply means the complete absence of anything. It is zero. Yet the OOP speaks of it as though it were a vast container, or even a living being with intentions, patience, and decisions. To ask why the void "allows" anything to happen is to ask what colour the number seven chooses to wear.

It sounds like a serious question because the sentence is grammatically correct, but the noun does not point to a thing that can act.

  1. OOP aks what happened "before" existence, and claims the void "outlasts time".

Time, tho, is simply the order in which we experience events happening one after another.

If there are no things and no events, there is no time passing. To speak of a moment "before" existence began, or to speak of something "outlasting" time, is to use the clock to measure a state where no clock can exist. The word "before" can only makes sense when there is already an earlier event to point to.

  1. OOP asks:

> What is the reason for having emerged?

A reason belongs only to a thinking being that forms an intention.

A person has a reason for building a house or writing a letter. Physical events, tho, do not have reasons; they have causes.

When rain falls, it does not do so for a reason; it falls because of physical conditions in the air. To ask for the "reason" why matter exists is to assume there must be an intention behind nature, whilst at the same time claiming nature is empty and cold.

  1. OOP also suggests that existence might be an "ontological error".

An error can happen only if there is a correct goal that someone failed to achieve. A clerk makes an error in a ledger, or a child makes an error in spelling, because there is a standard rule to follow. But nature has no goal it was trying to reach, and no master plan it was supposed to obey. Without a rule, there can be no mistake.

This is the exact line where philosophy stops being a search for truth and becomes a verbal illusion.

Our mind possesses useful tools for making sense of the world: cause, effect, time, and purpose. Used properly, they help us understand the things we observe. But when we point these tools at absolute nothingness, or at the universe as a single whole, the gears spin freely in the air. The words sound deep and tragic, but we're merely shifting ideas in our heads.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

Language is a tool we use to share the thoughts of our understanding with other people

The world around us affects our senses. Yet our senses on their own only give us raw, scattered feelings, such as patches of colour or moments of warmth.

Our mind does not leave these feelings scattered. It immediately gathers them together. It arranges them in space and time, and it unifies them under general ideas, which we call concepts.

For instance, when you look at a tree, your eyes take in green and brown shapes, but your mind unites all those sights under the single concept of "tree". A concept is simply the mind's rule for recognising what a thing is.

A word does not attach itself directly to the physical world outside our senses because a word is a shared sign for a concept inside our understanding.

When you say the word "tree", you are not handing someone wood and leaves. (This is painfully trivial, but i thought it was funny) Rather are using a sound to call up a concept in the mind. The word stands for the rule that tells us how to put our sensible experiences together.

Because of this, words do not describe things as they might exist completely apart from us. Words name our concepts of things as we experience them.

We do not just say single words; we build sentences.

A sentence takes two or more concepts and joins them together. When we join concepts, we make a judgement.

If you say, "The stone is heavy," you are linking the concept of the stone to the concept of weight. You are making a claim that this connection is not just a personal mood, but something that holds true for anyone who lifts that stone. Language is therefore the tool we use to turn our private sensations into public, orderly judgements.

Language works because all human minds share the same basic rules of thought.

When I speak to you, I use words to show how my understanding has connected its concepts. When you hear my words, your mind uses the very same rules to build the very same judgement. We do not magically pass on our private sensations unto another person's head. Instead, we use shared words to awaken the shared rules of reason in one another.

Language is therefore the shared instrument of human thought, allowing different minds to agree on one common, orderly experience.

But language does not reveal what the world is like when no one is looking.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

The answer to whether or not dualism is true, is indeterminate

Dualism is strictly indeterminate.

To understand why, we must first recognise a basic boundary line regarding how we think. We never experience the world exactly as it is on its own. We only ever experience the world as it appears to human senses. Every single thing we observe is immediately arranged by our mind into space and time. We are locked inside this human viewpoint, completely unable to step outside ourselves to see the raw, hidden reality underneath.

Dualism claims that the mind and the body are two completely different realities. It is easy to see why we make this assumption. When we observe our bodies, we see physical parts taking up space. When we observe our thoughts, we do not find shapes or physical weight; we only feel a sequence of ideas unfolding in time. Because the outer experience of the body and the inner experience of the mind feel so very different, we conclude that they must be made of two completely separate materials.

This judgement oversteps our bounds.

Space and time are simply our own internal rules for putting experiences in order.

The hidden truth behind our physical bodies and the hidden truth behind our inner thoughts could be two separate things, exactly as dualism claims. But they could as easily be a single, unified reality that merely appears to us in two different ways.

Because we can never bypass our own senses to check which of these options is the true one, the answer remains forever out of reach.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago

Materialism and Analytic Idealism are different sides of the same coin

Whenever we are awake and aware, our experience comes to us in two distinct ways:

  1. (Outer experience)—We see, touch, and move amongst things that appear outside us in space, such as stones, trees, and stars.
  2. (Inner experience)—We feel our own thoughts, memories, emotions, and awareness unfolding over time within our minds.

Neither of these gives us the world entirely on its own. We only ever know the world as it appears through these two channels of human awareness.

Materialism

The materialist looks at outer experience and makes a logical leap.

> The solid, spatial objects we touch and measure outside ourselves are the only fundamental reality. Everything inside the mind—our feelings, our thoughts and our very consciousness—is merely a byproduct made out of this physical stuff.

In doing this, the materialist takes one half of our experience (the outer, spatial world of physical things) and claims it is the ultimate, hidden foundation of all existence.

Analytic Idealism

The analytic idealist looks at the dispute and makes the exact opposite leap, yet uses the very same logic.

> We can only ever be sure of our own inner awareness. Therefore, mind or consciousness must be the only fundamental reality. Everything outside us—the rocks, the planets, and physical matter itself—is merely what mind looks like from the outside.

In doing this, the idealist takes the other half of our experience (the inner world of conscious awareness) and claims it is the ultimate, hidden foundation of all existence.

Shared Error

When you place these two views side by side, their shared foundation becomes obvious.

  1. Both make claims beyond human reach. Neither side is satisfied with describing how we experience the world. Both demand to know what the universe is made of in itself, completely apart from human experience.
  2. Both pick a favourite half of experience. The materialist tries to build the entire universe out of outer objects. The idealist tries to build the entire universe out of inner mind.
  3. Both lack any way to prove their claim. A human being cannot step outside of human awareness to confirm that mindless matter exists all by itself. Nor can a human being step outside of human awareness to confirm that a universal mind exists all by itself.

Resolution

Materialism and analytic idealism are simply two different answers to a question that human reason has no business asking.

Outer objects in space and inner thoughts in time are the two basic forms through which the world appears to us. Matter describes how things appear when we look outward. Mind describes how things appear when we look inward.

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u/feihm — 1 month ago