How is it a misinterpretation?
I genuinely want to understand
Why do some people reject hadiths (because of sexual slavery) as if milk al-yamīn in Islam had any interpretation other than sex with slaves?? There was no other interpretation for it centuries ago
Non-slavery interpretations of milk al-yameen only started popping up in the 19th and 20th centuries when slavery was already dying out and even then those views were super minor
My point is that you can't really call it a misinterpretation or an abuse of power if no other reading existed back then. That would mean the message was never corrupted and that our God, our Prophet, the companions and everyone else fully approved of it. I'd actually be suspicious if some people back in the 8th century or something were arguing that these verses didn't allow sex with enslaved women but those opinions just don't exist
I've been feeling really depressed for five months over this. I'm not trying to attack anyone I'm just genuinely confused