About Sheikh Ghamidis view on slavery, if the Quran abolished it why was it allowed prior?
For those who don’t know, Ghamidi uses verse 47:4 in the holy Quran as explicit evidence that the Quran abolished any way of obtaining new slaves and concubines, such as prisoners of war.
A thing that comes to mind though, is that if one accept his interpretation which does make sense, we would have to admit that slavery is terrible which is why the Quran ended it.
If this is the case, why was concubinage and slavery allowed (even in a regulated form) by god in the first place?