u/Jaded-Gur-5717

This daw.. elevates my blood pressure.. I will legit HIGHLIGHT a group of midi data and do ALT+C and it will randomly ALSO change the colour of UNHIGHLIGHTED MIDI DATA, and then ill go "oh I didnt want that NON HIGHTLIGHTED midi data to change colours, let me go fix that" I will highlight the group, go to change it the colour I had it as, and GUESS WHAT, now it will change the ORIGINAL midi data to the same colour. I dont know if this is making sense to anyone so let me put it in simpler terms.

I have:

Group A: Pink

Group B: Blue

Group C: Blue

What I want:

Group A: Pink

Group B: Blue

Group C: GRAY

The problem:

when I change GROUP C to GRAY... GROUP B ALSO changes to GRAY, when I go back and HIGHLIGHT ONLY group B to change it back to BLUE, Group C ALSO changes to BLUE... The funny part?? GROUP A Stays pink the entire time.

I saw a video online of someone playing a chord progression and I always like to pause and just observe how they are voicing chords since im still learning all this stuff, and I was kind of confused when I saw the person playing an inverted 7 chord. I forget exactly what it was but for simplicity lets say it was a G7/F but in the right hand he only had the 3 notes of a G Major triad and had the 7th in the bass. I never grew up playing piano and dont really have a musical background so this stuff is all relatively new to me so I was scratching my head wondering why it was called a G7/F instead of G/F? maybe it doesnt matter but I just thought in that specfic case, why not just call it G/F, you know G triad on top of a F. For me G7/F, my first thought would be a full G7 in the right hand with a F in left hand, or does it kind of just not really matter in the same way that no one would really notate a Cmaj7 differently if they doubled the 3rd or 5th on top?

I've been learning about functional harmony the past 2 weeks, because I really wanted to get the fundamentals down, and what ive learned is (and correct me if im wrong) is that the I, iii and vi are the "tonic functioning chords" which I guess means they are the most stable chords, the ii and the IV are "sub dominant functiong chords" which means they "want" to go to a dominant or they set the table for a dominant, and the V and vii° are the dominant chords and want to go back to the I or resolve in general. this is my basic understanding, but this only applies to the Major Scale and all the videos I watched are all in major scale context, so my question is does functional harmony exist in the other common modes like Dorian, Mixolydian, Aeolian, etc? or do those modes have their own systems of which chords behave which ways. I want to confidently be able to write chord progressions that make sense in each mode instead of relying on google or guessing/trail & error.

I don't know if this is the right place to ask this but, I never really utilized slash chords or inversions till recently and sometimes my brain just doesn't want to accept the bass note as the bass note. For example if I record in a chord progression, and for a smoother bassline I use an inversion or do a slash chord do put a different note in the bass for a certain chord, when I grab my bass to record an actual bassline, during the slash chord/inversion, if I play on bass the note I had as the bass note on the keys, It sounds wrong to me and I end up playing the actual tonic of the chord anyway, any else ever had this exprience?

How do I gain the skill of knowing when a certain note would work better as the bass note of a chord, or when choosing a different bass note would serve the chord progression better because its not always an inversion for better voice leading. When I study some of my favourite songs and they use slash chords, it just feels so right that I don't think that it was just a result of inverting a chord, it feels like it was a calculated decision. Any tips or insight on this would be great, all the videos I've seen are just about the what and not the why, I just wanna get better at making interesting progressions

The one year we finally avoid the Oilers we get swept and the DUCKS, the fricking Ducks beat edmonton?? The one year we dont face edmonton it had to be the year they were the most beatable they've been in a while. If they played Edmonton in r1 I legit think they wouldve won in 6, and been good for at least 7 game series against the Knights or Utah.

I must be accidentally be pressing a button on my keyboard that turns it on because I always ends up on and I dont use it

https://preview.redd.it/pjugdu6n0txg1.jpg?width=346&format=pjpg&auto=webp&s=23aa48ffd83915247c3977f4e710bc0f0e435434