
My theory for -A study in scarlet-
Good morning everyone, I hope I find you in good spirits. I have always been fascinated by mystery and Dr.Holmes and Dr.Wattson but have only now had time and surpassed enough of my dyslexia to actually read the work. So I have little prior knowledge other than the basic knowledge and some of the monster crossovers like Sherlock Holmes and the house of Dracula. Anyway:
I am reading chapter 3 of A study in Scarlett and am at the scene in which Holmes and Watson have entered the crime scene at the abandoned house and Holmes asks: "you sure that there is no wound?" Pointing at the splashes of which lay all around.
My theory: so, I have no deductive skills. This is just a fun idea as to what may have transpired: the man is well dressed and is middle aged. His immaculate collar and cuffs are remarked but he is described as...well..unattractive to put it politely. He has cards (so far undescribed so I will assume playing cards) and despite having no wounds there is what seem sto be copious amounts of blood amongst the scene.
He is well dressed and middle aged, with immaculate cuffs and a frock coat and tophat, so he is someone of importance or at least high status. Given the group often associated with top hats, let's assume he is a businessman of some sort. He is unattractive and even described as having an ape-ish face so it is unlikely this was a crime of passion. The playing cards in his coat suggest he may be a gambler of some sort. So most likely he crossed the wrong person by possibly cheating at a game because why else would someone go as far as to elaborately murder someone when they could have just shot them on the spot? This was personal.
So, this business man has a possibly secret lust for gambling and gambled against the wrong person. Earlier in the book when Watson met Holmes, Holmes expressed joy over breakthrough of his in forensic science.
What do I think happened? This man's killer was so distraught over this game in which he was likely cheated out of a lot of money that was denied to him: that he decided to murder him not with barbarism like a hatchet or gun, but through the stealth of injecting him with an unknown substance that caused him to convulse violently and bleed profusely before succumbing to the release of death.
Due to it being a syringe, there appears to be no wound on the body as the puncture is too small for the investigators to see. I think Holmes will use the test he created upon their first meeting to reveal what was injected into the victim
Don't spoil it for me please but due let me know if I'm on the right track or not!